1.Refer to the exhibit. What happens to a packet that has 172.16.0.0/16 as the best match in the routing table that is shown?
The packet is discarded.
The packet is flooded out all interfaces. The packet is forwarded via Serial0/0/0. The packet is forwarded via FastEthernet0/0.
2.Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is used for the routing protocol and all interfaces are configured with the correct IP addresses and subnet masks. During testing, it is found that router R1 is unable to form an adjacency with R2. What is the cause of this problem? Both routers have been configured with incorrect router IDs. Both routers have been configured in different OSPF areas. Both routers have been configured with an incorrect network type.
Both routers have been configured with different hello and dead intervals. 3.Refer to the exhibit. A technician has configured the interfaces on the Router, but upon inspection discovers that interface FastEthernet0/1 is not functioning. Which action will most likely correct the problem with FastEthernet0/1? A clock rate should be added to the interface configuration. The subnet mask should be added to the interface configuration. An interface description needs to be added to the interface configuration.
The no shutdown command needs to be added to the interface configuration. 4.Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network 10.0.0.0 goes down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event? Router4 will learn about the failed route 30 seconds later in the next periodic update. Split horizon will prevent Router4 from fowarding packets to the 10.0.0.0 network until the holddown timer expires. Router5 immediately flushes the unreachable route from its routing table.
Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0.
5 .Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator adds this command to router R1: ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 S0/0/0. What is the result of adding this command? This route is automatically propagated throughout the network. The traffic for network 172.16.1.0 is forwarded to network 192.168.2.0.
A static route is established. The traffic for all Class C networks is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.
6 .Which phase of the router boot process involves running diagnostics on the hardware components from ROM?
performing the POST
loading the bootstrap program locating and loading the Cisco IOS software locating and loading the startup configuration file
7.Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network administrator discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 172.16.0.0 network. Assuming Router2 is configured correctly, which two static routes could be configured on Router1 to enable Host A to reach network 172.16.0.0? (Choose two.)
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1 ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.1
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2
ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0 ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1
8. Which statement is true about the RIPv1 protocol? It is a link-state routing protocol.
It excludes subnet information from the routing updates. It uses the DUAL algorithm to insert backup routes into the topology table. It uses classless routing as the default method on the router.
9.Refer to the exhibit. Which combination of IP address and subnet mask can be used on the serial interface of Router2 in order to put the interface in the same network as the serial interface of Router1? IP 172.16.0.18, subnet mask 255.255.255.0 IP 172.16.32.15, subnet mask 255.255.255.240 IP 172.16.0.18, subnet mask 255.255.255.252 IP 172.16.32.18, subnet mask 255.255.255.252
10.Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is accessing router R1 from the console port. Once the administrator is connected to the router, which password should the administrator enter at the R1> prompt to access the privileged EXEC mode? Cisco001 Cisco123
Cisco789
Cisco901
11.Refer to the exhibit. When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from router C, which devices will be displayed in the output?
B, D
A, B, D D, SWH-2 SWH-1, A, B SWH-1, SWH-2 A, B, D, SWH-1, SWH-2
12 .What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network? It uses multicast instead of broadcast to send routing updates. It reduces the update timer to 15 seconds if there are more than 10 routes.
It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates.
It uses random pings to detect if a pathway is down and therefore is preemptive on finding networks that are down.
13 .Which routing protocol by default uses bandwidth and delay to calculate the metric of a route? RIPv1 RIPv2 OSPF
EIGRP
14 .Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? (Choose three.)
network address
loopback address autonomous system number subnet mask
wildcard mask
area ID
15.Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route.
The missing information for Blank 1 is the command debug ip route. The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 100.
The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120.
The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter R.
The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C.
16. How does route poisoning prevent routing loops? New routing updates are ignored until the network has converged.
Failed routes are advertised with a metric of infinity.
A route is marked as unavailable when its Time to Live is exceeded. The unreachable route is cleared from the routing table after the invalid timer expires.
17.Refer to the exhibit. Which path will traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network take to get to the 10.0.0.0/24 network? ADC ABC
It will load balance the traffic between ADC and ABC
It will send the traffic via ABC, and will use ADC as a backup path only when ABC fails.
18 .Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2, and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. All routers are operational and pings are not blocked on this network.
Which ping will fail? from R1 to 172.16.1.1
from R1 to 192.168.3.1
from R2 to 192.168.1.1 from R2 to 192.168.3.1
19.Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the displayed output? EIGRP packets are waiting to be sent to the neighbors. The adjacencies between the routers are yet to be established. The IP address 192.168.10.10 is configured at serial interface S0/0/1 of router R2.
Router R2 is receiving hello packets from a neighbor with the IP address 192.168.10.10 via the R2 S0/0/1 interface.
20.Refer to the exhibit. Which route in the routing table of R1 will be discarded by its neighboring router? 192.168.2.0
192.168.3.0
192.168.4.0 192.168.9.0 192.168.10.0 192.168.11.0
21.Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)
22 .Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.
The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface. The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.
23. In a complex lab test environment, a router has discovered four paths to 192.168.1.0/24 via the use of the RIP routing process. Which route will be installed in the routing table after the discovery of all four paths? R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.110.1, 00:00:17, Serial0/1/0 R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Serial0/0/0
R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.100.1, 00:00:17, Serial0/0/1
R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/4] via 192.168.101.1, 00:00:17, Serial0/1/1
24.Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has run the show interface command. The output of this command is displayed. What is the first step that is required to make this interface operational? Switch the cable with a known working cable.
Issue tXhe no shutdown command on the interface.
Configure the interface as a loopback interface. Set the encapsulation for the interface.
25 .A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this? The IOS image is corrupt. Cisco IOS is missing from flash memory.
The configuration file is missing from NVRAM. The POST process has detected hardware failure.
26. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is adding a new subnet of 50 hosts to R3. Which subnet address should be used for the new subnet that provides enough addresses while wasting a minimum of addresses? 192.168.1.0/24 192.168.1.48 /28 192.168.1.32/27 192.168.1.64/26
27. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIPv2 routing protocol and static routes are undefined. R1 can ping 192.168.2.1 and 10.1.1.2, but is unable to ping 192.168.4.1. What is the reason for the ping failure? The serial interface between two routers is down. R2 is not forwarding the routing updates.
The 192.168.4.0 network is not included in the RIP configuration of R2.
RIPv1 needs to be configured.
28. Which range of IP addresses will be used by RIPv2, EIGRP, and OSPF routing protocols to send routing advertisements?
n/a
29. A static route has been configured on a router. However, the destination network no longer exists. What should an administrator do to remove the static route from the routing table? Change the routing metric for that route. Nothing. The static route will go away on its own. Change the administrative distance for that route.
Remove the route using the no ip route command.
30. Refer to the exhibit. Which two routes are child routes? (Choose two.) 10.0.0.0
10.1.2.0
10.2.2.0
192.168.1.0 192.168.2.0
31. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are directly connected via their serial interfaces and are both running the EIGRP routing protocol. R1 and R2 can ping the directly connected serial interface of their neighbor, but they cannot form an EIGRP neighbor adjacency. What action should be taken to solve this problem? Enable the serial interfaces of both routers. Configure EIGRP to send periodic updates. Configure the same hello interval between the routers. Configure both routers with the same EIGRP process ID.
32. Refer to the exhibit. What are two of the routes added to the routing table of R1? (Choose two.) R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.3.0, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0
R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.2.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/1
R 192.168.9.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.1.2, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0
R 192.168.100.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.1.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0
R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.1.2, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0
33. A router that is using RIPv2 learns of the network 10.10.10.0/24 from two different neighbors. Which value is used by RIPv2 to select the best path to the network?
route metric
subnet mask longest match administrative distance
34. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. The network administrator requires that R2 always be the DR and maintain adjacency. Which two configurations can achieve this? (Choose two.) Change the OSPF area of R2 to a higher value. Change the router ID for R2 by assigning the IP address 172.16.30.5/24 to the Fa0/0 interface.
Change the priority values of the Fa0/0 interfaces of R1 and R3 to 0.
Configure a loopback interface on R2, with an IP address higher than any IP address on the other routers.
Configure R1 and R3 with an IP address whose value is higher than that of R2.
35. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OSPF using the following command: network 192.168.1.32 0.0.0.31 area 0 Which router interface will participate in OSPF? FastEthernet0/0 FastEthernet0/1
Serial0/0/0
Serial0/0/1
36. Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces are addressed and functioning correctly. The network administrator runs the tracert command on host A. Which two facts could be responsible for the output of this command? (Choose two.) The gateway for Host A is missing or improperly configured. The gateway for Host B is missing or improperly configured. The entry for 192.168.1.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R1.
The entry for 192.168.1.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R2.
The entry for 192.168.2.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R1.
The entry for 192.168.2.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R2.
37. A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area? Router_A(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route Router_B(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
Router_B(config-router)# default-information originate Router_A(config-router)# ip ospf update-default Router_B(config-router)# ip ospf update-default
38. Refer to the exhibit. A device is required to complete the connection between router R1 and the WAN. Which two devices can be used for this? (Choose two.)
a CSU/DSU device
a modem
an Ethernet switch a hub a bridge
39. The command ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 was entered into the router. After network changes were made, the new next hop for the 192.168.2.0/24 network is 172.16.5.1. What should an administrator do so that the router will use the new next hop to reach the 192.168.2.0 network? Enter the command clear ip route *. Lower the administrative distance for the new path to ensure that it is used first.
Negate the original command and enter a new static route with the new next hop.
Nothing. The router will learn of the new next hop and automatically update the route table.
40. Refer to the exhibit. Which host has a combination of IP address and subnet mask on the same network as Fa0/0 of Router1? host A
host B
host C host D
41. Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 120? It is the metric that is calculated by the routing protocol. It is the value that is used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link. It is the administrative distance of the routing protocol. It is the hold-down time, measured in seconds, before the next update.
42. What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet? used to confirm receipt of certain types of OSPF packets used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers used to request more information about any entry in the BDR
used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests
43. Refer to the exhibit. Which route will be removed from the routing table if manual EIGRP summarization is disabled the Serial0/0/0 interface of R3? 0.0.0.0/0
172.16.0.0/16
172.16.1.0/24 172.16.3.0/30
44. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0 R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0 R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0
45. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer has run the show version command on R3. Upon rebooting, R3 does not load the start-up configuration settings. What could be the cause of this problem? There is insufficient NVRAM. There is insufficient flash memory. The configuration register is not configured with the default setting. The system image file is not located in NVRAM.
46. Which two locations can be the source of the Cisco IOS that is used by a router during the bootup process? (Choose two.)
flash memory
RAM
NVRAM
TFTP server configuration register
47. Refer to the exhibit. What does the highlighted entry for network 172.30.0.0/16 indicate? Automatic summarization is enabled on R1. The routing table of R2 contains only classful networks. R2 will reject this update. The routing protocol that is configured on both routers is RIPv1.
48. Which routing protocol maintains a topology table separate from the routing table? IGRP RIPv1 RIPv2
EIGRP
49. When would the network administrator use the ip bandwidth-percent eigrp as-number percent command?
when there is a low bandwidth connection
when the connection is on a shared medium when the connection is serial instead of Ethernet when the link is always busy
50. You have been asked to explain converged networks to a trainee. How would you accurately describe a converged network? A network is converged when all routers have formed an adjacency. A network is converged immediately after a topology change has occurred. A network is converged when all routers flush the unreachable networks from their routing tables.
A network is converged after all routers share the same information
1.Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.
The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.
The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.
2.Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
10.0.0.0/8
64.100.0.0/16
128.107.0.0/16
172.16.40.0/24
192.168.1.0/24
192.168.2.0/24
3.Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.)
It is enabled by default on all Cisco IOS implementations.
It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route.
It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received.
It instructs routers to hold all changes that might affect routes, for a specified period of time.
It limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded.
4.A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64
A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32
B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
A(config)# no router rip
5.Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
The administrative distance of EIGRP has been set to 50.
All routes are stable.
The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.
The serial interface between the two routers is down.
Each route has one feasible successor.
6.Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)
The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160.
Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0.
The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route.
No default route has been configured.
7.Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
DRAM - loads the bootstrap
RAM - stores the operating system
Flash - executes diagnostics at bootup
NVRAM - stores the configuration file
ROM - stores the backup configuration file
POST - runs diagnostics on hardware modules
8.What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.
The routers must elect a designated router.
The routers must agree on the network type.
The routers must use the same dead interval.
The routers must exchange link state requests.
The routers must exchange database description packets.
9.What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)
It forwards data packets toward their destination.
It forwards the packet to the destination if the TTL value is 0.
It changes the destination IP address of data packets before forwarding them to an exit interface.
It determines the best path based on the destination MAC address.
It acts as an intersection between multiple IP networks.
10.Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about router R2?
The routing table content indicates that interface S0/0/0 is administratively down.
The route for 172.16.1.0 is a static route.
A packet that is destined for a host on the 172.16.3.0 network is forwarded without performing a routing table lookup.
The packets that are routed to network 172.16.1.0 require two routing table lookups.
11.Refer to the exhibit. The output of the show ip route command for router R1 is displayed. What action will the router take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.5?
It will drop the packet.
It will forward the packet to interface Serial0/0/0.
It will determine the route for the packet through a routing protocol.
It will forward the packet to the default gateway.
12.Refer to the exhibit. Although R2 is configured correctly, host A is unable to access the Internet. Which two static routes can be configured on R1 to enable Internet connectivity for host A? (Choose two.)
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Fa0/0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Fa0/1
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.2
ip route 209.165.202.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.1
ip route 209.165.202.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.2
13.Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be derived from this output? (Choose two.)
Three network devices are directly connected to Router2.
The serial interface between Router2 and Router3 is up.
Router1 and Router3 are directly connected.
Six devices are up and running on the network.
Layer 3 functionality between routers is configured properly.
14.Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R3 use different routing protocols with default administrative distance values. All devices are properly configured and the destination network is advertised by both protocols.
Which path will be used to transmit the data packets between PC1 and PC2?
The packets will travel via R2-R1.
The packets will travel via R2-R3.
The traffic will be load-balanced between two paths — via R2-R1 and via R2-R3.
The packets will travel via R2-R3, and the other path via R2-R1 will be retained as the backup path.
15.A network administrator uses the RIP routing protocol to implement routing within an autonomous system. What are two characteristics of this protocol? (Choose two.)
It uses the Bellman-Ford algorithm to determine the best path.
It displays an actual map of the network topology.
It offers rapid convergence in large networks.
It periodically sends complete routing tables to all connected devices.
It is beneficial in complex and hierarchically designed networks.
16.Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 2?
It is the administrative distance of the routing protocol.
It is the number of hops between R2 and the 192.168.8.0/24 network.
It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
It is the convergence time measured in seconds.
17.In a lab test environment, a router has learned about network 172.16.1.0 through four different dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach this network?
D 172.16.1.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Serial0/0/0
O 172.16.1.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, Serial0/0/0
R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Serial0/0/0
I 172.16.1.0/24 [100/1192] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Serial0/0/0
18.Refer to the exhibit. The routers are properly configured using a dynamic routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Router A is forwarding data to router E. Which statement is true about the routing path?
If the network uses the RIP protocol, router A will determine that all paths have equal cost.
If the network uses the RIP protocol, router A will update only the A-C-E path in its routing table.
If the network uses the EIGRP routing protocol, router A will determine that path A-D-E has the lowest cost.
If both RIP and EIGRP protocols are configured on router A, the router will use the route information that is learned by the RIP routing protocol.
19.Which statement is true about the RIPv1 protocol?
It is a link-state routing protocol.
It excludes subnet information from the routing updates.
It uses the DUAL algorithm to insert backup routes into the topology table.
It uses classless routing as the default method on the router.
20.Refer to the exhibit. The 10.4.0.0 network fails. What mechanism prevents R2 from receiving false update information regarding the 10.4.0.0 network?
split horizon
hold-down timers
route poisoning
triggered updates
21.Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. The two networks 10.1.1.0/29 and 10.1.1.16/29 are unable to access each other. What can be the cause of this problem?
Because RIPv1 is a classless protocol, it does not support this access.
RIPv1 does not support discontiguous networks.
RIPv1 does not support load balancing.
RIPv1 does not support automatic summarization.
22.How does route poisoning prevent routing loops?
New routing updates are ignored until the network has converged.
Failed routes are advertised with a metric of infinity.
A route is marked as unavailable when its Time to Live is exceeded.
The unreachable route is cleared from the routing table after the invalid timer expires.
23.Which statement is true about the metrics used by routing protocols?
1
A common metric is used by all routing protocols.
The metric with the highest value is installed in the routing table.
The router may use only one parameter at a time to calculate the metric.
24.Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIPv2 routing protocol and static routes are undefined. R1 can ping 192.168.2.1 and 10.1.1.2, but is unable to ping 192.168.4.1.
What is the reason for the ping failure?
The serial interface between two routers is down.
R2 is not forwarding the routing updates.
The 192.168.4.0 network is not included in the RIP configuration of R2.
RIPv1 needs to be configured.
25.Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wants to reduce the size of the routing table of R1. Which partial routing table entry in R1 represents the route summary for R2, without including any additional subnets?
10.0.0.0/16 is subnetted, 1 subnets
D 10.5.0.0[90/205891] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0
10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 4 subnets
D 10.5.0.0[90/205198] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0
10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets
D 10.5.0.0[90/205901] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0
10.0.0.0/8 is subnetted, 4 subnets
D 10.5.0.0[90/205001] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0
26.Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is adding a new subnet of 50 hosts to R3. Which subnet address should be used for the new subnet that provides enough addresses while wasting a minimum of addresses?
192.168.1.0/24
192.168.1.48 /28
192.168.1.32/27
192.168.1.64/26
27.Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are ultimate routes?
3
4
5
7
28.Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?
Router1
Router2
Router3
Router4
29.Which two statements are true about the EIGRP successor route? (Choose two.)
It is saved in the topology table for use if the primary route fails.
It is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to the destination.
It is flagged as active in the routing table.
After the discovery process has occurred, the successor route is stored in the neighbor table.
30.Refer to the exhibit. R2 is configured correctly. The network administrator has configured R1 as shown. Which two facts can be deduced from the configuration of R1? (Choose two.)
R1 will forward the route information for subnet 192.168.100.0/30.
The administrative distance has been set to 50 on R1.
R1 will not forward route information for subnet 192.168.100.4.0/30.
R1 will forward the EGRP update for subnet 10.10.10.0/30.
Autosummarization must be enabled.
31.Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running the same routing protocol. Based on the exhibit and its displayed commands, which statement is true?
Routers B, C, and D have no access to the Internet.
The link to the ISP will be excluded from the routing protocol process.
A default route must be configured on every router.
The wildcard mask is incorrectly configured.
32.Which two components are used to determine the router ID in the configuration of the OSPF routing process? (Choose two.)
the IP address of the first FastEthernet interface
the highest IP address of any logical interface
the highest IP address of any physical interface
the default gateway IP address
the priority value of 1 on any physical interface
33.Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are unable to establish an adjacency. What two configuration changes will correct the problem? (Choose
two.)
Set a lower priority on R2.
Configure the routers in the same area.
Set a lower cost on R2 compared to R1.
Add a backup designated router to the network.
Match the hello and dead timers on both routers.
34.Refer to the exhibit. All routers are properly configured to use the EIGRP routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Which statement correctly describes the path that the traffic will use from the 10.1.1.0/24 network to the 10.1.2.0/24 network?
It will use the A-D path only.
It will use the path A-D, and the paths A-C-D and A-B-D will be retained as the backup paths.
It will use all the paths equally in a round-robin fashion.
The traffic will be load-balanced between A-B-D and A-C-D.
35.Which routing protocol maintains a topology table separate from the routing table?
IGRP
RIPv1
RIPv2
EIGRP
36.Refer to the exhibit. A ping between the serial interfaces of R1 and R2 is successful, but a ping between their FastEthernet interfaces fails. What is the reason for this problem?
The FastEthernet interface of R1 is disabled.
One of the default routes is configured incorrectly.
A routing protocol is not configured on both routers.
The default gateway has not been configured on both routers.
37.Refer to the exhibit. What action will R2 take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.2.0?
It will drop the packet.
It will forward the packet via the S0/0/0 interface.
It will forward the packet via the Fa0/0 interface.
It will forward the packet to R1.
38.Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as shown, and all interfaces are functioning correctly. A ping from R1 to 172.16.1.1 fails. What could be the cause of this problem?
The serial interface on R1 is configured incorrectly.
The default route is configured incorrectly.
The default-information originate command must be issued on R1.
Autosummarization must be disabled on R1.
39.Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces are addressed and functioning correctly. The network administrator runs the tracert command on host A. Which two facts could be responsible for the output of this command? (Choose two.)
The entry for 192.168.2.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R1.
The entry for 192.168.1.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R2.
The entry for 10.1.1.0/30 is missing from the routing table of R1.
The entry for 10.1.1.0/30 is missing from the routing table of R2.
The entry for 192.168.1.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R1.
The entry for 192.168.2.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R2.
40.A router has learned two equal cost paths to a remote network via the EIGRP and RIP protocols. Both protocols are using their default configurations. Which path to the remote network will be installed in the routing table?
the path learned via EIGRP
the path learned via RIP
the path with the highest metric value
both paths with load balancing
41.Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2, and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. All routers are operational and pings are not blocked on this network.
Which ping will fail?
from R1 to 172.16.1.1
from R1 to 192.168.3.1
from R2 to 192.168.1.1
from R2 to 192.168.3.1
42.Refer to the exhibit. Which summarization should R1 use to advertise its networks to R2?
192.168.1.0/24
192.168.0.0/24
192.168.0.0/22
192.168.1.0/22
43.Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet. What is the reason for this?
The IP address of host A is incorrect.
The default gateway of host A is incorrect.
The Fa0/1 interfaces of the two routers are configured for different subnets.
The subnet mask for the Fa0/0 interface of R1 is incorrect.
44.Refer to the exhibit. Which two components are required to complete the configuration? (Choose two.)
a CSU/DSU device
a DTE device
a DCE device
a crossover cable
a V.35 cable
45.A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?
The IOS image is corrupt.
Cisco IOS is missing from flash memory.
The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.
The POST process has detected hardware failure.
46.Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is accessing router R1 from the console port. Once the administrator is connected to the router, which password should the administrator enter at the R1> prompt to access the privileged EXEC mode?
Cisco001
Cisco123
Cisco789
Cisco901
47.Refer to the exhibit. While trying to diagnose a routing problem in the network, the network administrator runs the debug ip rip command. What can be determined from the output of this command?
The router will be unable to ping 192.168.1.2.
The router has two interfaces that participate in the RIP process.
The router will forward the updates for 192.168.1.0 on interface Serial0/0/1.
The router is not originating routes for 172.16.1.0.
48.Refer to the exhibit. To implement the RIPv2 protocol, the network administrator runs the commands as displayed. However, the show ip protocol command fails to display any output. How can the administrator solve the problem that is indicated by the lack of output from this command?
Include the default-information originate command.
Include the no auto-summary command.
Specify the network for which RIP routing has to be enabled.
Implement RIPv2 authentication in the network.
49.Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is configured properly and all interfaces are functional. Router R1 has been installed recently. Host A is unable to ping host B.
Which procedure can resolve this problem?
Configure a static route on R1 using the IP address of the serial interface on R1.
Configure a default route on R1 with the exit interface Fa0/0 on R1.
Configure a static route on R1 using the IP address of S0/0/0 on R2.
Configure a default route on R1 using the IP address of Fa0/0 on R2.
50.Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run at R1. Which two facts about the newly detected device can be determined from the output? (Choose two.)
ABCD is a router that is connected to R1.
ABCD is a non-CISCO device that is connected to R1.
The device is connected at the Serial0/0/1 interface of R1.
R1 is connected at the S0/0/1 interface of device ABCD.
ABCD does not support switching capability.
Expect minimum percentage: 90.2%
1. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.) ans: packet switching path selection
2. Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network administrator discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 172.16.0.0 network. Assuming Router2 is configured correctly, which two static routes could be configured on Router1 to enable Host A to reach network 172.16.0.0? (Choose two.) ans: ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0 ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2
3. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.) ans: Paris(config)# router eigrp 100 Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0 Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0
4. Refer to the exhibit. A packet enters Router1 with a destination IP of 172.16.28.121. Which routing table entry will be used to forward this packet to the destination address? ans: 172.16.16.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.17
5. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration? ans: Packets routed to the R2 Fast Ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.
6. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.) ans: 10.0.0.0/8 192.168.2.0/24
7. Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol. If network 10.0.0.0 goes down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing information back to Router2? ans: split horizon
8. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.) ans: The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route. The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120. The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C.
9. The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command. How will this route appear in the routing table? ans: S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
10. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.) ans: The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value. Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process. No default route has been configured.
11. The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology? ans: The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.
12. What is the purpose of the TTL field within an IP packet header? ans: limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded
13. Refer to the exhibit. When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from router C, which devices will be displayed in the output? ans: B, D
14. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26? ans: The packet will be dropped.
15. Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network 10.0.0.0 goes down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event? ans: Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0.
16. The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result? ans: The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24 network in its routing updates.
17. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.) ans: The serial interface between the two routers is down. The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.
18. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are running RIPv2 and EIGRP with default routing protocol settings and have interfaces configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Which protocol will be used and how will traffic between the Router1 LAN and Router5 LAN be routed through the network? ans: RIPv2 traffic will use the path Router1, Router2, Router5 because it has the least hops.
19. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.) ans: Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
20. What are two switching functions of a router? (Choose two.) ans: The router encapsulates the packet in the appropriate data link frame type for the outgoing data link. The router determines the exit interface after data encapsulation.
21. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network? ans: The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces.
22. When presented with multiple valid routes to a destination, what criteria does a router use to determine which routes to add to the routing table? ans: The router first selects routes with the lowest administrative distance. The resulting routes are then prioritized by metric and the routes with the best metric are added to the routing table.
23. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.) ans: NVRAM - stores the configuration file POST - runs diagnostics on hardware modules
24. Refer to the exhibit. What are the effects of the exhibited commands on the router? ans: Only the enable password is encrypted.
25. Refer to the exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link. Pings are failing between the two routers. What change by the administrator will correct the problem? ans: Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 192.168.0.1/30.
26. Which three statements about routing protocols are true? (Choose three.) ans: EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing. OSPF elects designated routers on multiaccess links. RIP does not advertise a route beyond a hop count of 15.
27. What is the first step OSPF and IS-IS routers take in building a shortest path first database? ans: send hello to discover neighbors and form adjacencies
28. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.) ans: The routers must agree on the network type. The routers must use the same dead interval.
29. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table? ans: The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.
30. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause? ans: 192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet.
31. Refer to the exhibit. Which two routes are child routes? (Choose two.) ans: 10.0.0.0 10.1.2.0
32. Refer to the exhibit. The results of the show ip route command are displayed in the graphic for Router R2. Which route will be selected for a packet with a destination address of 10.1.4.1? ans: route to 10.1.0.0/23
33. Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 192? ans: It is the metric, which is cost.
34. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A? ans: Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table.
35. A router has learned about a network through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach network 192.168.168.0? ans: S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1
36. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network? ans: It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates.
37. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.) ans: The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one. The router maintains the same source and destination IP. The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
38. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A? ans: B(config)# router rip B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
39. Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash? ans: Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.
40. Refer to exhibit. A company network engineer enters the following commands in the routers:
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2 R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
When the engineer enters the show ip route command on R1, the routing table does not display the static route to the 10.1.1.0 network. All R1 and R2 interfaces are correctly addressed per the graphic. What is a logical next step that the engineer could take in order to make the static route display in the routing table in R1? ans: Enable the R1 and R2 serial interfaces.
41. What should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose two.) ans: OSPF interval timers mismatch interface network type mismatch
42. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1? ans: 172.16.0.0/13
43. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0? ans: R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0
44. Refer to the exhibit. Which path will traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network take to get to the 10.0.0.0/24 network? ans: It will load balance the traffic between ADC and ABC
45. What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet? ans: used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests
46. Which statement is true regarding routing metrics? ans: Routers compare metrics to determine the best route.
47. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to determine why router JAX has no OSPF routes in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. From the JAX router, the administrator is able to ping its connected interfaces and the Fa0/1 interface of the ORL router but no other router interfaces. What is a logical step that the network administrator should take to troubleshoot the problem? ans"; Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating.
48. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.) ans: It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route. It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received.
49. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.) ans: As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table. If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology.
50. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.) ans: They are aware of the complete network topology. They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.
51. What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.) ans: tests Layer 2 connectivity enabled by default on each interface provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled
52. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router? ans: The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
53. Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? (Choose three.) ans: network address wildcard mask area ID
54. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router R1? ans: 198.18.48.0/21
55. A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area? ans: Router_A(config-router)# ip ospf update-default
56. What can be determined from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.) ans: Montgomery has Layer 2 connectivity with Cumberland. Brant, Fisherman, and Potomac are directly connected to Montgomery.
57. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1? ans: DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0.
58. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled "?" in the graphic? (Choose three.) ans: DCE CSU/DSU modem
59. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are both level 1 and qualify for use as an ultimate route? ans: 2
1
Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the displayed output?
** Router R2 is receiving hello packets from a neighbor with the IP address 192.168.10.10 via the R2 S0/0/1 interface.
2
Refer to the exhibit. The networks that are connected to R1 have been summarized for R2 as 192.168.136.0/21. Which packet destination address will R2 forward to R1?
** 192.168.142.1
3
Refer to the exhibit. All routers are properly configured with default configurations and are running the OSPF routing protocol. The network is fully converged. A host on the 192.168.3.0/24 network is communicating with a host on the 192.168.2.0/24 network.
** Which path will be used to transmit the data?
** The data will be transmitted via R3-R1-R2.
4
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
** All routes are stable.
** The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.
5
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)
** The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
** Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
** No default route has been configured.
6
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator successfully pings R1 from R3. Next, the administrator runs the show cdp neighbors command on R3. The output of this command is displayed. What are two reasons for the absence of R1 in the output? (Choose two.)
** The no cdp run command has been run at R1.
** The no cdp enable command has been run at Fa0/1 interface of R3.
7
Which two statements are true for OSPF Hello packets? (Choose two.)
** They are received from all routers on the network and used to determine the complete network topology.
** They are used to maintain neighbor relationships.
8
Refer to the exhibit. Although both the routers can ping the serial interface of their neighbors, they are unable to ping the Ethernet interfaces of other routers. Which two statements are true for this network? (Choose two.)
** R1 is learning about network 192.168.2.0.
** Autosummarization is enabled on both routers.
9
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator accesses router R1 from the console port to configure a newly connected interface. What passwords will the network administrator need to enter to make the connection and the necessary configuration changes?
** the Cisco001 password and the Cisco789 passwords
10
Refer to the exhibit. The interfaces of all routers are configured for OSPF area 0. R3 can ping R1, but the two routers are unable to establish a neighbor adjacency. What should the network administrator do to troubleshoot this problem?
** Check the hello and dead intervals between the routers.
11
Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured properly for a single area OSPF, and R2 has been recently installed in the network. Which set of commands is required to configure a single area OSPF for the networks that are connected to R2?
** R2(config)# router ospf 1
R2(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R2(config-router)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
12
Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is unable to access the Internet. What is the cause of the problem?
** A routing loop has occurred.
13
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator adds this command to router R1: ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 S0/0/0. What is the result of adding this command?
** A static route is established.
14
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is planning IP addressing of a new network. What part of this addressing scheme must be changed to allow communication between host A and the server?
** the IP address of the server
15
Refer to the exhibit. What summarization should R2 use to advertise its LAN networks to R1?
** 172.16.4.0/22
16
Refer to the exhibit. The router receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.5.79. How will the router handle this packet?
** It will drop the packet.
17
A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
** B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
18
Refer to the exhibit. R1 is running RIP with default parameters. R1 has learned four different paths with the same metrics to network 192.168.6.0. Which path or paths will R1 use to forward a packet that is destined to 192.168.6.10?
** the first path that the router learned
19
Refer to the exhibit. A ping from R1 to 10.1.1.2 is successful, but a ping from R1 to 192.168.2.0 fails. What is the cause of this problem?
** A default route is not configured on R1.
20
A network administrator needs to configure a single router to load-balance the traffic over unequal cost paths. Which routing protocol should the administrator use?
** RIPv2
21
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OSPF using the following command:
network 192.168.1.32 0.0.0.31 area 0
Which router interface will participate in OSPF?
** Serial0/0/0
22
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has run the following command on R1.
R1# ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.2
What is the result of running this command?
** Traffic for network 192.168.2.0 is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.
23
Two routers need to be configured within a single OSPF area. Which two components need to be configured on both routers to achieve this? (Choose two.)
** the same area ID
** network addresses and wildcard masks
24
Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. The network administrator requires that R2 always be the DR and maintain adjacency.
Which two configurations can achieve this? (Choose two.)
** Change the priority values of the Fa0/0 interfaces of R1 and R3 to 0.
**Configure a loopback interface on R2, with an IP address higher than any IP address on the other routers.
25
Which routing protocol by default uses bandwidth and delay to calculate the metric of a route?
** EIGRP
26
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has run the show interface command. The output of this command is displayed. What is the first step that is required to make this interface operational?
** Issue the no shutdown command on the interface.
27
In a complex lab test environment, a router has discovered four paths to 192.168.1.0/24 via the use of the RIP routing process. Which route will be installed in the routing table after the discovery of all four paths?
** R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.100.1, 00:00:17, Serial0/0/1
28
Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
** 10.0.0.0/8
** 192.168.2.0/24
29
Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIP protocol. Devices on the 192.168.1.1 network can ping the S0/0/0 interface on R2 but cannot ping devices on the 192.168.2.1 network.
What is a possible cause of this problem?
** The routers are configured with different versions of RIP.
30
Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?
** Router4
31
What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
** The routers must agree on the network type.
** The routers must use the same dead interval.
32
A router has EIGRP configured as the only routing protocol. In what two ways does EIGRP respond if there is no feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route fails? (Choose two.)
** It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until a new successor route is found.
** It automatically forwards traffic to a fallback default route until a successor route is found.
33
Refer to the exhibit. The command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0 is run on router R2. What are the two results of this command? (Choose two.)
** A static route will be updated in the routing table.
** The route will be specified as the default route for all networks not defined in the routing table.
34
Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
** The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
** The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
** The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
35
Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 120?
** It is the administrative distance of the routing protocol.
36
Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2 and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. What can be verified from the output?
** R2 is connected to the S0/0/1 interface of R3.
37
Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.)
** It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route.
** It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received.
38
Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
** NVRAM - stores the configuration file
** POST - runs diagnostics on hardware modules
39
Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured to run RIPv1 and are fully converged. Which routing updates will be received by R3?
** updates for 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24 and 172.16.3.0/24
40
Which mechanism helps to avoid routing loops by advertising a metric of infinity?
** route poisoning
41
Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run on one of the devices as shown. Based on this information, which two facts can be determined? (Choose two.)
** The command was run on the router.
** ABCD is connected to the Fa0/0 interface of the neighboring device.
42
A router that uses the RIP routing protocol has an entry for a network in the routing table. It then receives an update with another entry for the same destination network but with a lower hop count. What action will the router take for this new update?
** It will append the update information to the routing table.
43
Refer to the exhibit. All the routers are properly configured to use the RIP routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Router A is forwarding data to router E. Which statement is true about the routing path?
** Router A will determine that all paths have equal metric cost.
44
Which two statements are true about classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
** They can be used for discontiguous subnets.
** They can forward supernet routes in routing updates.
45
When a router boots, what is the default order to locate the Cisco IOS if there is no boot system command?
** flash, NVRAM, TFTP server
46
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has run the show ip protocol command on R1. What can be determined from the exhibited output?
** The FastEthernet0/0 interface is down.
47
Refer to the exhibit. A device is required to complete the connection between router R1 and the WAN. Which two devices can be used for this? (Choose two.)
** a CSU/DSU device
** a modem
48
Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured to use the EIGRP routing protocol with default settings, all routes are advertised on all routers, and the network is fully converged. Which path will the data take to travel between 172.16.1.0/24 and 192.168.100.0/24?
** It will travel via A, F, E, D, and C.
49
Refer to the exhibit. The hosts on the R1 LAN are unable to access the Internet. What is incorrectly configured?
** the IP address of the S0/0/0 interface at R1
50
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet, and troubleshooting has revealed that this is due to an addressing problem. What is incorrectly configured in this network?
** the IP address of the S0/0/0 interface of R1
51
What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)
** It connects multiple IP networks.
** It determines the best path to send packets.
52
Which two situations require the use of a link-state protocol? (Choose two.)
** Fast convergence of the network is critical.
** The network is very large.
53
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the routing process for this network?
** The packet leaves interface Fa0/0 of R1 with the source MAC address as 000C.3010.9260.
54
Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are child routes?
** 4
55
Refer to the exhibit. All routes are advertised and fully operational on all routers. Which statement is true about the path that the data will take from router A to router B?
** If EIGRP is used with default configurations, the data will be equally distributed between two paths ?A, D, B and A, C, D.
56
Refer to the exhibit. The output of the show ip route command for three routers on a network is displayed. All routers are operational, pings are not blocked on this network, and no default routes are installed. Which two pings will fail? (Choose two.)
** from R1 to 192.168.3.1
** from R3 to 192.168.1.1
57
Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the highlighted output?
** Automatic summarization is disabled.
I just found the answers somewhere else i hope it will help
>>>>>no guarantee<<<<<<<<<<<<
Final Exam Aswer - CCNA 2 Router and Routing Basics
1
What are two possible reasons a router would not load a
valid IOS from flash? (Choose two.)
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>The configuration register is set to 0x2142.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>The first boot system command executed in the startup
configuration file is boot system rom.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>The configuration register is set to 0x2100.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>The boot field is set to the hexadecimal number 2.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>The startup configuration file is missing or corrupt.
2
What are two recommended uses of login banners? (Choose
cellpadding='0'>This is a standard IP access list that denies network
192.28.115.0 Telnet access to the 172.20.0.0 network.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>All Telnet traffic destined for 172.20.0.0 from any
network will be denied access.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Network 192.28.115.0 is denied Telnet access to the
172.20.0.0 network.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Network 172.20.0.0 is denied Telnet access to the
192.28.115.0 network.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>All FTP and HTTP traffic destined for 172.20.0.0 will be
permitted access.
31
Which two steps describe how to create a functional
physical connection between a router console and a terminal? (Choose two.)
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Use a crossover cable to connect the terminal serial
port to the router console port.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Use a rollover cable to connect the terminal NIC to the
router console port.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Use an RJ-45 to DB-9 adapter on the terminal serial port
to connect to the cable going to the router console.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Use a transceiver to connect a straight-through cable to
the router console port.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Use a straight-through cable to connect the router
console port to the terminal NIC.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Use a rollover cable to connect from a terminal serial
port to the router console port.
32
What critical information about the status of the router
can be found in the outputs of both the show interfaces and show
protocols commands? (Choose two.)
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>the Layer 3 address of each configured interface
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>the routing protocol configured to forward updates out
of each interface
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>the operational status of each interface
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>traffic statistics for each interface
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>whether the interface is configured as a DTE or DCE
33
src='pic/image049.jpg'
v:shapes='_x0000_i2024' />
The following access list has been created to prevent traffic from the
192.0.2.63 host on the Sales LAN from accessing servers and hosts on the
Payroll LAN.
access-list 26 deny host 192.0.2.63
access-list 26 permit any
Refer to the exhibit. Which group of commands will properly place the
access list so that only the host on the Sales LAN is denied access to the
172.29.7.0 network but all other traffic is permitted?
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Payroll(config)# interface fa0/0
Payroll(config-if)# ip access-group 26 out
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Payroll(config)# interface fa0/1
Payroll(config-if)# ip access-group 26 out
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Sales(config)# interface fa0/1
Sales(config-if)# ip access-group 26 in
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Sales(config)# interface fa0/0
Sales(config-if)# ip access-group 26 out
34
src='pic/image048.jpg'
v:shapes='_x0000_i2026' />
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming default metrics are used and the network is
fully converged, which path will RIP use to send a packet from Router A to
Router F?
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>A, D, E, F
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>A, B, D, E, F
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>A, C, D, E, G, F
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>A, B, D, E, G, F
35
src='pic/image050.jpg'
v:shapes='_x0000_i2028' />
Refer to the graphic. Communication is needed between the LAN connected to
the fa0/0 interface of the Kansas router and the fa0/0 interface of the
Maine router. All hosts on those LANs also need connectivity to the
Internet. Which commands will allow this communication? (Choose three).
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Kansas(config)# ip route 192.168.6.0 255.255.255.0
172.18.64.2
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Kansas(config)# ip route 192.168.6.0 255.255.255.0
s0/1
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Kansas(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Maine(config)# ip route 192.168.6.0 255.255.255.0
172.18.64.1
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Maine(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Maine(config)# ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.255.0
172.18.64.2
36
Why are interface descriptions used in router
configurations? (Choose three).
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>to enable support personnel to easily identify networks
and customers that may be affected by a possible interface issue
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>to provide comments on the interface without affecting
the router functionality
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>to display access warning messages before users enter
the interface configuration mode
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>to eliminate the need to use IP addresses when using the ping and telnet commands
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>to identify the purpose and location of the interface
37
src='pic/image051.jpg'
v:shapes='_x0000_i2030' />
A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network
diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from
being sent to Router A?
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>A(config)# no router rip
38
What could a Cisco support technician learn from the IOS
filename c2600-d-mz.121-3? (Choose three.)
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>the format of the file
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>the RAM memory requirements of the file
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>the version number of the file
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>the size of the file
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>the device platform of the file
39
src='pic/image052.jpg'
v:shapes='_x0000_i2032' />
While planning an IOS upgrade, the administrator issues the show version command. Based on the output in the graphic, what is the current IOS boot
location?
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>RAM
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>NVRAM
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Flash
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>ROM
40
A new technician must add boot system commands to one of
the department routers. Which available commands will the router return as
output when the command shown below is entered? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# boot system ?
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>RAM
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>NVRAM
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>IOS
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>IP Address
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>TFTP
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>FLASH
41
From the running-config, the following configuration
entries are displayed:
Router(config)# line vty 0 2
Router(config-line)# password g8k33pr
Router(config-line)# login
What can be interpreted from the exhibited configuration? (Choose two.)
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Three Telnet lines are available for remote access.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Two Telnet lines are available for remote access.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Future configuration of the remaining Telnet lines will
require the password to be set to g8k33pr.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>To login to the remote device, g8k33pr will be used as
the Telnet and secret password.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Remote access to this local router will require a Telnet
password of g8k33pr.
42
Which router component stores the information that is
displayed by the show running-config command?
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>flash
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>NVRAM
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>RAM
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>ROM
43
What are two characteristics of the support for Telnet
within Cisco IOS software? (Choose two.)
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Up to five separate Telnet lines are supported by
default in standard edition IOS files.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>For security purposes, Telnet sessions are required to
be established from the privileged mode.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>A router can host simultaneous Telnet sessions.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Once established, a Telnet session can remain
operational regardless of network status.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Telnet tests wireless connectivity and does not require
a physical connection between devices to gain remote access.
44
Which router components and operations are correctly
described? (Choose two.)
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>RAM - stores the ARP cache
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>NVRAM - store the operating system
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>ROM - stores the backup IOS
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>POST - verifies the validity of the running-config
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Flash - executes diagnostics at bootup
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>DRAM - loads the bootstrap
45
src='pic/image034.jpg'
v:shapes='_x0000_i2034' />
Given the output shown in the exhibit, in what order and location will the
router search for the IOS if no boot system commands are found in
the startup-config file?
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>ROM, Flash, TFTP server
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Flash, NVRAM, RAM
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>ROM, TFTP server, Flash
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>RAM, Flash, NVRAM
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Flash, TFTP server, ROM
46
What can a network administrator do to recover from a
lost router password?
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>perform a reload or reset
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>telnet from another router and issue the show
running-config command to view the password
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>boot the router to ROM monitor mode and configure the
router to ignore NVRAM when it initializes
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>boot the router to bootROM mode and enter the b command to load the IOS manually
47
src='pic/image036.jpg'
v:shapes='_x0000_i2036' />
Neither router in the exhibit has a host table or DNS available. The
interfaces and passwords have been correctly configured. Which of the following
commands will initiate a Telnet session? (Choose two.)
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Tottenham# telnet Oxford
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Tottenham> telnet 198.18.139.1
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Oxford# connect 198.18.139.0
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Oxford> connect Tottenham
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Oxford# telnet Tottenham
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Oxford# 198.18.139.2
48
If a PC does not have network connectivity to a router,
which router port can be used to establish communication?
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>console
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Ethernet
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>serial
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>VTY
1. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)
It connects multiple IP networks.
It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
It determines the best path to send packets.
It manages the VLAN database.
It increases the size of the broadcast domain
2. When a router boots, what is the default order to locate the Cisco IOS if there is no boot system command?
ROM, TFTP server, flash
flash, TFTP server, ROM
flash, NVRAM, TFTP server
NVRAM, TFTP server, flash
3. Which router component is used to store the routing table?
Flash
NVRAM
ROM
SDRAM
4. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are child routes?
1
3
4
6
5. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?
Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps.
The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boundaries and should be summarized.
Packets routed to the R2 Fast Ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.
The static route will not work correctly
6. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?
The packet will be dropped.
The packet will be forwarded to the gateway of last resort.
The packet will match the 192.168.0.0 network and be forwarded out Serial 0/0.
The packet will most closely match the 192.168.0.8 subnet and be forwarded out Serial 0/1
7. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R3 use different routing protocols with default administrative distance values. All devices are properly configured and the destination network is advertised by both protocols.
Which path will be used to transmit the data packets between PC1 and PC2?
The packets will travel via R2-R1.
The packets will travel via R2-R3.
The traffic will be load-balanced between two paths — via R2-R1 and via R2-R3.
The packets will travel via R2-R3, and the other path via R2-R1 will be retained as the backup path
8. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 on 172.16.1.0/24 network can reach the default gateway on R1. The rest of the routers are configured with the correct IP addresses on the interfaces. Routers R2 and R3 do not have static or dynamic routing enabled. How far will PC1 be able to successfully ping?
router R1 Fa0/0 interface
router R1 S0/0/0 interface
router R2 S0/0/0 interface
router R2 Fa0/0 and S0/0/1 interfaces
router R3 Fa0/0 and S0/0/0 interfaces
9. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are properly configured to use the EIGRP routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Which statement correctly describes the path that the traffic will use from the 10.1.1.0/24 network to the 10.1.2.0/24 network?
It will use the A-D path only.
It will use the path A-D, and the paths A-C-D and A-B-D will be retained as the backup paths.
It will use all the paths equally in a round-robin fashion.
The traffic will be load-balanced between A-B-D and A-C-D.
10. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
They are aware of the complete network topology.
They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.
They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates.
They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path.
They do not work well in networks that require special hierarchical designs.
They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only
11. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?
Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths.
The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.
The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.
12. What two routing protocols use a hierarchal network topology? (Choose two.)
IS-IS
EIGRP
OSPF
RIPv1
RIPv2
13. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output from the show running-config and debug ip rip commands, what are two of the routes that are added to the routing table of R1? (Choose two.)
R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.2.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/1
R 192.168.100.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.1.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0
S 192.168.1.0/24 [1/0] via FastEthernet0/0
R 192.168.9.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.2.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0
R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.1.2, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0
14. Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2 and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. What can be verified from the output?
R1 and R3 are connected to each other via the S0/0/0 interface.
The IP address of the S0/0/0 interface of R1 is 10.1.1.2.
The IP address of the S0/0/1 interface of R2 is 10.3.3.2.
R2 is connected to the S0/0/1 interface of R3.
15. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?
All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table.
Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table.
The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured.
A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the networks.
16. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is accessing router R1 from the console port. Once the administrator is connected to the router, which password should the administrator enter at the R1> prompt to access the privileged EXEC mode?
Cisco001
Cisco123
Cisco789
Cisco901
17. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled “?” in the graphic? (Choose three.)
DCE
CSU/DSU
LAN switch
modem
hub
18. Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?
Router1
Router2
Router3
Router4
19. Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run at R1. Which two facts about the newly detected device can be determined from the output? (Choose two.)
ABCD is a router that is connected to R1.
ABCD is a non-CISCO device that is connected to R1.
The device is connected at the Serial0/0/1 interface of R1.
R1 is connected at the S0/0/1 interface of device ABCD.
ABCD does not support switching capability.
20. A static route has been configured on a router. However, the destination network no longer exists. What should an administrator do to remove the static route from the routing table?
Change the routing metric for that route.
Nothing. The static route will go away on its own.
Change the administrative distance for that route.
Remove the route using the no ip route command.
21. Refer to the exhibit. A ping between host A and host B is successful, but pings from host A to operational hosts on the Internet fail. What is the reason for this problem?
The FastEthernet interface of R1 is disabled.
One of the default routes is configured incorrectly.
A routing protocol is not configured on both routers.
The default gateway has not been configured on host A.
22. Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2, and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. All routers are operational and pings are not blocked on this network.
Which ping will fail?
from R1 to 172.16.1.1
from R1 to 192.168.3.1
from R2 to 192.168.1.1
from R2 to 192.168.3.1
23. Refer to the exhibit. What action will R2 take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.2.0?
It will drop the packet.
It will forward the packet via the S0/0/0 interface.
It will forward the packet via the Fa0/0 interface.
It will forward the packet to R1
24. Refer to the exhibit. The users on the local network 172.16.1.0/24 complain that they are unable to connect to the Internet. What step should be taken to remedy the problem?
A new static route must be configured on R1 with the R3 serial interface as the next hop.
A new default route must be configured on R1 with the R3 serial interface as the next hop.
The default route on R2 should be configured with the R3 serial interface as the next hop.
The default route on R2 must be replaced with a new static route and the next hop should be the R1 FastEthernet interface
25. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1?
172.16.0.0/8
172.16.0.0/10
172.16.0.0/13
172.16.0.0/20
172.16.0.0/24
26. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet, and troubleshooting has revealed that this is due to an addressing problem. What is incorrectly configured in this network?
the IP address of the Fa0/0 interface of R1
the subnet mask of the S0/0/0 interface of R1
the IP address of the S0/0/0 interface of R1
the subnet mask of the S0/0/0 interface of R2
27. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause?
The default gateway is incorrect.
The address is in the wrong subnet.
The host address and default gateway are swapped.
192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet
28. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is planning IP addressing of a new network. What part of this addressing scheme must be changed to allow communication between host A and the server?
the IP address of the server
the default gateway of host A
the IP address of host A
the default gateway of the server
29. Which network design feature requires the deployment of a classless routing protocol?
private IP addressing
advertising default routes
variable length subnet masks
summarization on major network boundaries
30. A network administrator needs to assign the very last usable IP address in the 172.24.64.0/18 network range to the router interface that serves this LAN. Which IP address should the administrator configure on the interface?
172.16.128.154/18
172.16.255.254/18
172.24.64.254/18
172.24.127.254/18
31. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. The two networks 10.1.1.0/29 and 10.1.1.16/29 are unable to access each other. What can be the cause of this problem?
Because RIPv1 is a classless protocol, it does not support this access.
RIPv1 does not support discontiguous networks.
RIPv1 does not support load balancing.
RIPv1 does not support automatic summarization.
32. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the highlighted output?
R1 is originating the route 172.30.200.32/28.
Automatic summarization is disabled.
The 172.30.200.16/28 network is one hop away from R1.
A classful routing protocol is being used
33. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network?
It uses multicast instead of broadcast to send routing updates.
It reduces the update timer to 15 seconds if there are more than 10 routes.
It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates.
It uses random pings to detect if a pathway is down and therefore is preemptive on finding networks that are down
34. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64
A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32
B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
A(config)# no router rip
35. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIP protocol. Devices on the 192.168.1.1 network can ping the S0/0/0 interface on R2 but cannot ping devices on the 192.168.2.1 network.
What is a possible cause of this problem?
The routers are configured with different versions of RIP.
R2 is not forwarding the routing updates.
The R1 configuration should include the no auto-summary command.
The maximum path number has been exceeded.
36. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.)
It is enabled by default on all Cisco IOS implementations.
It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route.
It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received.
It instructs routers to hold all changes that might affect routes, for a specified period of time.
It limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded
37. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)
Paris(config)# router eigrp 100
Paris(config)# router eigrp
Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.6.0
Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0
Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0
Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.9.0
38. A router has EIGRP configured as the only routing protocol. In what way might EIGRP respond if there is no feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route fails?
It broadcasts hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.
It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until a new successor route is found.
It immediately sends its entire routing table to its neighbors.
It will set the metric for the failed route to infinity.
39. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router?
The JAX router has the wrong process ID.
The JAX router needs the network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
The BOS router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command
40. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.)
As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table.
If the feasible successor has a higher advertised cost than the current successor route, then it becomes the primary route.
If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology.
The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor.
EIGRP maintains full knowledge of the network topology in the topology table and exchanges full routing information with neighboring routers in every update.
EIGRP builds one routing table that contains routes for all configured routed protocols.
41. Refer to the exhibit. What happens to a packet that has 172.16.0.0/16 as the best match in the routing table that is shown?
The packet is discarded.
The packet is flooded out all interfaces.
The packet is forwarded via Serial0/0/0.
The packet is forwarded via FastEthernet0/0.
42. A network is configured with the IP, IPX, and AppleTalk protocols. Which routing protocol is recommended for this network?
RIPv1
RIPv2
EIGRP
OSPF
43. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
Automatic summarization is disabled.
The EIGRP routing protocol is being used.
There is one feasible successor in the routing table.
The serial interface S0/0/0 is administratively down.
The router is originating the route to 172.16.1.0/24 via the S0/0/0 interface
44. Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are unable to establish an adjacency. What is the possible cause for this?
The two routers are connected on a multiaccess network.
The hello and dead intervals are different on the two routers.
They have different OSPF router IDs.
They have different process IDs
45. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0
46. What should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose two.)
OSPF interval timers mismatch
administrative distance mismatch
interface network type mismatch
no loopback interface configured
gateway of last resort not redistributed
47. Which two components are used to determine the router ID in the configuration of the OSPF routing process? (Choose two.)
the IP address of the first FastEthernet interface
the highest IP address of any logical interface
the highest IP address of any physical interface
the default gateway IP address
the priority value of 1 on any physical interface
48. What is the function of the OSPF LSR packet?
It is used to confirm the receipt of LSUs.
It is used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers.
It is used by the receiving routers to request more information about any entry in the DBD.
It is used to check the database synchronization between routers.
49. Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces are configured with the correct IP addresses and subnet masks. OSPF has been configured as the routing protocol. During troubleshooting, it is determined that hosts on network B can ping the Lo0 interface on R1 but are unable to reach hosts on network A. What is the cause of the problem?
Routers R1 and R2 have incorrect router IDs configured.
Router R1 is unable to form a neighbor relationship with router R2.
Routers R1 and R2 have been configured in different OSPF areas.
The configuration of router R1 fails to include network A in the OSPF routing process
50. Refer to the exhibit. The interface addresses and OSPF priorities are configured as shown. Because of the boot order of the routers, router A is currently the DR and router B is the BDR. If router A fails and is replaced the next day by a new router, router D, what OSPF protocol action or actions will happen?
Router D will be elected DR, and router C will become the BDR.
Router D will be elected DR, and router B will remain the BDR.
Router C will become the DR, and router B will become the BDR.
Router B will remain the BDR, and OSPF will function on the segment via the use of only the BDR
1
Which value determines if a switch becomes the central point of reference in the spanning tree topology?
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the configuration commands that are shown?
to activate port Fa0/10
to make the port a member of VLAN 30
to activate port security on port Fa0/10
to add VLAN 30 to the trunk that is connected to port Fa0/10
3
Refer to the exhibit. What would happen if the network administrator moved the network cable of Host A from interface Fa0/1 to Fa0/switch SW1?
Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the router is routing traffic between VLANs.
Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, because port Fa0/3 has been manually assigned to VLAN 30.
Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the switch provides dynamic VLAN assignment for the port.
Host A maintains connectivity to all members of VLAN 10, because it is connected to the same physical network.
Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, but because port Fa0/3 was unused, it is now a member of VLAN 1.
4
Which device or devices should have the Spanning Tree Protocol enabled to prevent host traffic from creating a broadcast storm?
Core_S1
Access_S2 and Access_S3
Core_S1, Access_S2, and Access_S3
Core_S1, Access_S2, Access_S3, and R1
5
Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?
Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.
Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.
Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.
Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces used to connect SW1 and SW2.
6
Refer to the exhibit. The Layer 2 switching design that is shown has been implemented in a campus environment that is using Spanning
Tree Protocol. All inter-switch links that are shown are trunks. Whenever an inter-switch link fails, the network takes nearly a minute completely converge. How can the convergence time be reduced?
Increase the capacity of the distribution and core trunk links to 10 Gb/s.
Add a trunk link that directly connects D1 and D2.
The configuration file named tokyo-config will overwrite the startup configuration file on S1.
The running configuration file on S1 will be saved via TFTP to a file named tokyo-config.
The contents of NVRAM on S1 will become the startup configuration file on the tokyo switch.
8
Refer to the exhibit. What does the term DYNAMIC indicate in the output that is shown?
This entry can only be removed from the MAC address table by a network administrator.
When forwarding a frame to the device with address 0060.5c5b.cd23, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine
the final destination port.
Only the device with MAC address 0060.5c5b.cd23 will be allowed to connect to port Fa0/18.
The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/18.9 Which two statements are correct about wireless infrastructure components? (Choose two.)
An AP converts the TCP/IP data packets from their 802.11 frame encapsulation format to the 802.3 Ethernet frame format on the
wired Ethernet network.
A wireless AP does not require any physical connection to allow wireless clients to access the Internet.
An AP is a layer 2 device, similar to a switch, that provides dedicated bandwidth to each connected wireless host.
Collisions do not occur between wireless NICs and APs.
The wireless router performs the roles of AP and router.
10
Which service should be disabled on a Cisco switch or router to prevent packet sniffers from capturing information about the device?
SSH
VTP
CDP
SNMP
11
Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time but a collision occurs. Which
hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?
only hosts A and B
only hosts A, B, and C
only hosts A, B, C, and D
only hosts A, B, C, and E
12
What are three benefits of employing a hierarchical network design? (Choose three.)
Hierarchically designed networks can more easily be expanded to suit future needs.
Hierarchical design models enhance existing bandwidth through the use of link aggregation.
The hierarchical model allows for specialized functionality at each layer, simplifying device management.Use of a hierarchical design allows replacement of redundant devices with high-capacity network equipment.
A hierarchical design uses firewalls instead of complicated port-based and distribution layer security policies.
The hierarchical model allows the use of high-performance switches at all design layers, thus allowing for a fully-meshed topology.
13 A network administrator implements inter-VLAN routing by configuring subinterfaces on a router. What is one important fact that must considered?
The physical interface must have an IP address configured.
The subinterface numbers must match the VLAN ID number.
The no shutdown command must be issued on each subinterface.
The IP address of each router subinterface must be used as the default gateway for hosts on the corresponding VLAN.
14
Which type of frame contains information that is used in the election of the spanning tree root bridge?
Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the
switches are configured with their default priority values?
switch A
switch B
switch C
switch D
switch E
switch F
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16
Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when frames with a source address other than 0019.d2e4.d9f7 enters interface Fa0/24?
Fa0/24 will become error-disabled.
The incoming frames will be dropped.
The Fa0/24 port LED will be turned off.
The security violation count will be incremented.
17
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Switch1 and Switch2. Hosts A, B, C, and D are correctly
configured with IP addresses in the subnet range for VLAN 50. Host A can communicate with host B, but cannot communicate with C or host D. What is the cause of this problem?
There is a native VLAN mismatch.
The Fa0/11 interface of Switch1 is not configured as a trunk.
The link between Switch1 and Switch2 is up but not trunked.
VLAN 50 is not allowed on the trunk link between Switch1 and Switch2.
18
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator enters the displayed commands to configure VLAN 30. What is the result of running these
commands?
VLAN 30 will be added to S1, S2, and S3, but not to S4.
VLAN 30 will be pruned from the VLAN database of S3.
VLAN 30 will be added to the VLAN database of S3 but will not be propagated to S4, S2 or S1.
VLAN 30 will not be added to the VLAN database of S3 and an error message will be displayed.
19
Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping computer 3 but cannot ping computer 1. What is possible cause for this failure?
S1 port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.
R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
The IP address of computer 1 is in the wrong logical network.
Router interface Fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.
20
Refer to the exhibit. How does SW1 manage traffic coming from Host A?
SW1 drops the traffic because it is untagged.
SW1 leaves the traffic untagged and forwards it over the trunk.
SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.
21
Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y?
QoS
routing
trunking
VPN
22 When implementing a router-on-a-stick, what must be configured on the router to ensure connectivity between different VLANs?
subinterfaces
routing protocol
switched virtual circuits
dynamic trunking protocol
23
Refer to the exhibit. Users complain that they do not have connectivity to the web server that is connected to SW1. What should be to remedy the problem?
Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
Configure VLAN 100 as the native VLAN for SW1.
Configure the trunk port in trunk mode on SW1.
Attach the web server to a router and configure inter-VLAN routing.
24 Which method establishes an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N wireless access point?
Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.
Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software.
From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser.
Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the same network, and then reboot
your computer to establish a connection.
25
Company policy requires disabling the command history buffer on network devices. An administrator enters terminal no history size
the command prompt on a Cisco Catalyst switch and receives no error messages back, but the command history buffer is still available.
What is the problem?
The command contained a syntax error.
The Cisco IOS version does not support disabling the command history buffer.
The command history can only be disabled on a router, not a switch.
The size parameter reset the default buffer size but did not disable access to the buffer.26
Refer to the exhibit. What does “FORWARDING” mean in the command output shown?
The switch is sending and receiving data frames.The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.
27
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
Cat-A
Cat-B
Cat-C
Cat-D
28
Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP address should be assigned to this new host?
192.168.1.11 /28
192.168.1.22 /28192.168.1.33 /28
192.168.1.44 /28
192.168.1.55 /28
29
Refer to the exhibit. All trunk links are operational and all VLANs are allowed on all trunk links. An ARP request is sent by computer Which device or devices will receive this message?
only computer 4
computer 3 and RTR-Acomputer 4 and RTR-A
computer 1, computer 2, computer 4, and RTR-A
computer 1, computer 2, computer 3, computer 4, and RTR-A
all of the computers and the router
30
Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. What will be pruned in the VTP advertisements from switch
ST-C to switch ST-1?
VLAN 30
VLAN 20 and VLAN 30
VLAN 1, VLAN 20, and VLAN 30
VLAN 2 through VLAN 29, and VLAN 31 through VLAN 1000
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31
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator documented the output of a CAM table from an Ethernet switch as shown. What action will the
switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?
discard the frame
forward the frame out port 2
forward the frame out port 3
forward the frame out all ports
forward the frame out all ports except port 3
add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to port 2 in the forwarding table
32
What are two requirements for configuring inter-VLAN routing using the router-on-a-stick model? (Choose two.)
Each subinterface should be configured with its own IP address, subnet mask, and unique VLAN assignment.
The physical interface of the router must be connected to a trunk link on the adjacent switch.The number of physical interfaces on the router should match the number of VLANs.
Different static VLANs should be assigned to different interfaces of the router.
The router should be configured as the VTP server.
33
Refer to the exhibit. The switch VTY lines have been properly configured, but PC1 is unable to remotely manage the switch. How can
this problem be resolved?
Configure the Fa0/1 interface of the switch in trunk mode.
Configure a default gateway on the switch.Configure the native VLAN on the switch.
Configure the Fa0/1 interface of the switch to allow all VLANs.
34
Refer to the exhibit. After entering the commands in the exhibit, the administrator receives a “password required, but none set” message
when attempting to connect to S1. What is the problem?
The enable secret password was not set.
S1 does not have login configured on the vty lines.
S1 does not have a password configured for the vty lines.The crypto key is not properly configured to generate passwords.
The VLAN1 interface has not be enabled with the no shutdown command.
35
Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator enters the show interface
fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?
The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.
The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.
The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic trunking protocol to establish trunk.
36
Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?
SSIDOFDM
WEP
DSSS
37
Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?
Disable VTP pruning on SW2.
Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.
Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password.
Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.
38
Refer to the exhibit. In what two ways will the router handle VLAN traffic that is received on the trunk? (Choose two.)
Traffic to VLAN 1 received by the router interface Fa0/0 will be dropped by the router.Because interface Fa0/0 requires an IP address, the router will not be able to route between the VLANs.
Packets that are received from network 192.168.20.0 /24 will be handled by subinterface Fa0/0.20.The router will use subinterface MAC addresses to identify the VLAN traffic that is received on the physical interface.
The router will continue to process traffic from the attached VLANs even if the physical interface goes down.
In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it does not allow for the creation of local VLANs but it does accept VLAN updates from other
switches in the same domain?
client
root
server
transparent
40
Which configuration changes will increment the configuration revision number on the VTP server?
configuring trunk links on the VTP server
configuring or changing the VTP password
configuring or changing the VTP domain name
configuring or changing the VTP version number
configuring or deleting a VLAN or creating a VLAN name
41
Refer to the exhibit. Switches S2 and S3 are properly connected using an ethernet cable. A network administrator has configured both
switches with VTP, but S3 is unable to propagate VLANs to S2. What could be the reason for this?
The VTP configuration revision is different on both switches.
The VTP domains are different on both switches.
VTP pruning is disabled.
VTP v2 is disabled.
42
Refer to the exhibit. What is true of the configuration of switch S1?
Only VLAN 99 will be allowed to use the trunk links.
Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 are configured with a standard trunking protocol.
Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 should be configured as access ports to allow data from multiple VLANs to access switch S1.
The switch negotiated trunk links for interfaces Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 because all connected interfaces have been configured with the
switchport mode dynamic auto command.
43
What is an efficient and cost effective way to minimize the frequency and effects of broadcast storms on an Ethernet LAN?
Connect each PC directly to a router port.
Use access control lists to filter broadcasts from the network.
Divide the computers into separate VLANs on the existing switches.
Divide the computers into separate workgroups using different physical switches.
44
Refer to the exhibit. The configuration steps that are listed in the exhibit have been entered in switch S1 via the console. Subsequent
attempts to telnet to the switch are not successful. What is causing the problem?
The switch must be configured with SSH version 1.
The transport input command must specify Telnet access.
The RSA keys must be returned to zero before SSH will permit Telnet access.
The ip domain-name command must also be entered in line configuration mode for the vty lines.
45 Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter when choosing the root bridge?
The network diameter limitation is 9.
BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers.
The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.
The network diameter must be set to the number of meters of the cable between the root bridge and its farthest connected switch.
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46
Refer to the exhibit. The commands are entered into switch SW1 as shown, and an 802.1q trunk is successfully established. How does
switch SW1 handle the untagged traffic that is destined for the trunk?
SW1 will drop all untagged traffic.
SW1 will send all untagged traffic to VLAN 1.
SW1 will send all untagged traffic to VLAN 25.
SW1 will send untagged traffic to all VLANs that are configured on the trunk.
47
Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond the network? (Choose two.)
After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.
Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting.
48
Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. What last device to receive the collision?
hub HB1
switch SW1
router R1
switch SW2
router R2
switch SW4
49
What provides an authentication mechanism for 802.11-based wireless networks?
DSSS
OFDM
SSID
WPA
50 What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.)
requires less equipment
provides improved range
permits increased data rates
has a single-input and a single-output
needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility
51
Refer to the exhibit. Users A and B are reporting intermittent connectivity problems. Pre-installation surveys showed strong signal
strength from the AP locations to the client locations. Outside electrical interference has been eliminated. What will fix the problem?
Relocate the APs closer to each other.
Increase the distance between the clients.
Change the channel on AP-B to 6 or 11.
Place AP-A and AP-B on the same wireless channel.
52 Why is MAC address filtering considered a poor choice in securing a WLAN?
Available bandwidth is reduced.
MAC addresses are easily spoofed.
APs are more susceptible to DoS attacks.
The payload encryption is easily broken.
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How will a router that is configured with a classless routing protocol determine the subnet mask that should be assigned to routes that are learned from neighboring classless routers?
The subnet mask that is included in the routing updates will be used.
The subnet mask of the interface that receives the update will be used.
The subnet mask that is specified in the network command will be used.
The class of the network in the update will determine the subnet mask that is used.
Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
DRAM – loads the bootstrap
RAM – stores the operating system
Flash – executes diagnostics at bootup
NVRAM – stores the configuration file
ROM – stores the backup configuration file
POST – runs diagnostics on hardware modules
Refer to the exhibit.
What are two of the routes added to the routing table of R1? (Choose two.)
R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.3.0, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0
R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.2.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/1
R 192.168.9.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.1.2, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0
R 192.168.100.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.1.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0
R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.1.2, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0
Refer to the exhibit.
Two routers that are configured for area 0 are unable to establish neighbor adjacency. Which two configuration changes should be made to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)
Both the routers should be configured for the same router ID.
The serial interface of both the routers must be configured in the same subnet.
Both the routers should be configured as designated routers.
Both the routers should be configured for the same process ID.
The network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0 command must be issued on both routers.
Which feature of a classful IP routing protocol distinguishes it from a classless IP routing protocol?
cannot summarize IP addresses
allows for discontiguous IP address assignment
supports the use of variable length subnet masks
does not include the subnet mask in routing updates
When would the network administrator use the ip bandwidth-percent eigrp as-number percent command?
when there is a low bandwidth connection
when the connection is on a shared medium
when the connection is serial instead of Ethernet
when the link is always busy
Refer to the exhibit.
A ping from R1 to 10.1.1.2 is successful, but a ping from R1 to 192.168.2.0 fails. What is the cause of this problem?
There is no gateway of last resort at R1.
The serial interface between the two routers is down.
A default route is not configured on R1.
The static route for 192.168.2.0 is incorrectly configured.
Refer to the exhibit.
Routers R1 and R3 use different routing protocols with default administrative distance values. All devices are properly configured and the destination network is advertised by both protocols.
Which path will be used to transmit the data packets from PC1 to PC2?
The packets will travel via R2-R1.
The packets will travel via R2-R3.
The traffic will be load-balanced between two paths — via R2-R1 and via R2-R3.
The packets will travel via R2-R3, and the other path via R2-R1 will be retained as the backup path.
Refer to the exhibit.
A packet enters Router1 with a destination IP of 172.16.28.121. Which routing table entry will be used to forward this packet to the destination address?
172.16.0.0/16 [1/0] via 192.168.0.1
172.16.0.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.9
172.16.16.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.17
0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1
A network administrator is setting up a new router with a device name of Admin, an encrypted password of cangetin, and the IP address 192.168.1.22/29 assigned to the first FastEthernet interface. Which command sequence correctly configures this router?
Admin(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.22 255.255.255.248
Router(config)# hostname Admin
Admin(config)# enable secret cangetin
Admin(config)# interface fa0/0
Admin(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.22 255.255.255.248
Router(config)# hostname Admin
Admin(config)# enable password cangetin
Admin(config)# interface fa0/0
Admin(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.22 255.255.255.248
Refer to the exhibit.
Which summarization should R1 use to advertise its networks to R2?
192.168.1.0/24
192.168.0.0/24
192.168.0.0/22
192.168.1.0/22
In which situation would a default static route be recommended?
when connecting an edge router to the Internet
when variable length subnet masking is in effect
when there is more than one valid route for a destination network
when a destination network has a larger mask than any routes in the routing table
Refer to the exhibit.
If the router loopback interfaces, FastEthernet interfaces, and OSPF priorities are configured as shown, which router would win an OSPF DR election?
A
B
C
D
All routers in a network are configured in a single OSPF area with the same priority value. No loopback interface has been set on any of the routers. Which secondary value will the routers use to determine the router ID?
The highest MAC address among the active interfaces of the network will be used.
There will be no router ID until a loopback interface is configured.
The highest IP address among the active FastEthernet interfaces that are running OSPF will be used.
The highest IP address among the active interfaces will be used.
Refer to the exhibit.
A device is required to complete the connection between router R1 and the WAN. Which two devices can be used for this? (Choose two.)
a CSU/DSU device
a modem
an Ethernet switch
a hub
a bridge
Refer to the exhibit.
When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route.
The missing information for Blank 1 is the command debug ip route.
The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 100.
The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120.
The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter R.
The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C.
Refer to the exhibit.
The hosts that are connected to R2 are unable to ping the hosts that are connected to R1. How can this problem be resolved?
Configure the router ID on both routers.
Configure the R2 router interfaces for area 0.
Configure a loopback interface on both routers.
Configure the proper subnet masks on the router interfaces.
Refer to the exhibit.
All interfaces are addressed and functioning correctly. The network administrator runs the tracert command on host A. Which two facts could be responsible for the output of this command? (Choose two.)
The gateway for Host A is missing or improperly configured.
The gateway for Host B is missing or improperly configured.
The entry for 192.168.1.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R1.
The entry for 192.168.1.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R2.
The entry for 192.168.2.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R1.
The entry for 192.168.2.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R2.
Refer to the exhibit.
PC1 is unable to access the Internet. What is the cause of the problem?
An incorrect IP address is configured between the two routers.
No static route is configured on Router2.
A routing loop has occurred.
No routing protocol is configured on either of the two routers.
Refer to the exhibit.
Routers R1 and R2 are directly connected via their serial interfaces and are both running the EIGRP routing protocol. R1 and R2 can ping the directly connected serial interface of their neighbor, but they cannot form an EIGRP neighbor adjacency.
What action should be taken to solve this problem?
Enable the serial interfaces of both routers.
Configure EIGRP to send periodic updates.
Configure the same hello interval between the routers.
Configure both routers with the same EIGRP process ID.
Refer to the exhibit.
The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
The router chooses the first path that it learned and installs only that route in the routing table.
The router chooses the path with the lowest administrative distance and installs only that route in the routing table.
The router chooses the highest routing ID based on the advertised network IP addresses and installs only that route in the routing table.
The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table but sends packets out only one, holding the others in reserve in case the primary route goes down.
The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces.
Refer to the exhibit.
Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link. Pings are failing between the two routers. What change by the administrator will correct the problem?
Set the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
Decrease the bandwidth on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 1544.
Change the cable that connects the routers to a crossover cable.
Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 192.168.0.1/30.
You have been asked to explain converged networks to a trainee. How would you accurately describe a converged network?
A network is converged when all routers have formed an adjacency.
A network is converged immediately after a topology change has occurred.
A network is converged when all routers flush the unreachable networks from their routing tables.
A network is converged after all routers share the same information, calculate best paths, and update their routing tables.
Which port should a terminal emulator be connected to in order to access a router without network connectivity?
T1
serial
console
FastEthernet
Which component is typically used to connect the WIC interface of a router to a CSU/DSU?
V.35 cable
RJ-45 adapter
crossover cable
straight-through cable
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route will be removed from the routing table if manual EIGRP summarization is disabled the Serial0/0/0 interface of R3?
0.0.0.0/0
172.16.0.0/16
172.16.1.0/24
172.16.3.0/30
A router has learned two equal cost paths to a remote network via the EIGRP and RIP protocols. Both protocols are using their default configurations. Which path to the remote network will be installed in the routing table?
the path learned via EIGRP
the path learned via RIP
the path with the highest metric value
both paths with load balancing
Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?
Perform the POST routine.
Search for a backup IOS in ROM.
Load the bootstrap program from ROM.
Load the running-config file from RAM.
Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
All routes are stable.
Each route has one feasible successor.
The serial interface between the two routers is down.
The administrative distance of EIGRP has been set to 50.
The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.
Refer to the exhibit.
The command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0 is run on router R2. What are the two results of this command? (Choose two.)
A static route will be updated in the routing table.
The traffic from the Internet will be directed to R2.
The traffic from the source network 172.16.0.0/22 will be blocked.
The route will be specified as the default route for all networks not defined in the routing table.
All the broadcasts will be forwarded via the S0/0/0 interface of R2.
Which two statements are true about the EIGRP successor route? (Choose two.)
It is saved in the topology table for use if the primary route fails.
It may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
It is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to the destination.
It is flagged as active in the routing table.
After the discovery process has occurred, the successor route is stored in the neighbor table.
Which mechanism helps to avoid routing loops by advertising a metric of infinity?
route poisoning
split horizon
hold-down timer
triggered updates
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two facts can be derived from this output? (Choose two.)
Three network devices are directly connected to Router2.
The serial interface between Router2 and Router3 is up.
Router1 and Router3 are directly connected.
Six devices are up and running on the network.
Layer 3 functionality between routers is configured properly.
Refer to the exhibit.
A static route was configured on router R1 to forward packets to the remote networks. During a network upgrade, the network administrator configured RIPv2 on all routers in the network. What will router R1 do with a packet that is sourced from PC1 and destined for PC3?
The packet will be forwarded out the Serial0/0/0 interface via the static route.
The packet will be forwarded out the FastEthernet0/1 interface via the static route.
The packet will be forwarded out the Serial0/0/0 interface via the route that is learned through RIP.
The packet will be forwarded out the FastEthernet0/1 interface via the route that is learned through RIP.
Which statement is true regarding routing metrics?
All routing protocols use the same metrics.
EIGRP uses bandwidth as its only metric.
Routers compare metrics to determine the best route.
The larger metric generally represents the better path.
Refer to the exhibit.
The results of the show ip route command are displayed in the graphic for Router R2. Which route will be selected for a packet with a destination address of 10.1.4.1?
route to 0.0.0.0/0
route to 10.1.0.0/22
route to 10.1.0.0/23
route to 10.1.0.0/24
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator is trying to determine why router JAX has no OSPF routes in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. From the JAX router, the administrator is able to ping its connected interfaces and the Fa0/1 interface of the ORL router but no other router interfaces. What is a logical step that the network administrator should take to troubleshoot the problem?
Reboot the routers.
Change the OSPF process ID on all of the routers to 0.
Check to see if the cable is loose between ORL and JAX.
Check to see if CDP packets are passing between the routers.
Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating.
Refer to the exhibit.
R1 and R2 are both configured with RIPv1. Beginning from global configuration mode, what comand or commands will eliminate RIP updates on the Ethernet segment of R2?
Although R2 is configured correctly, host A is unable to access the Internet. What are two static routes that can be configured on R1, either of which would enable Internet connectivity for host A? (Choose two.)
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Fa0/0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Fa0/1
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.2
ip route 209.165.202.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.1
Refer to the exhibit.
How many routes are both level 1 and qualify for use as an ultimate route?
1
2
3
4
5
6
A network administrator is in charge of two separate networks that share a single building. What device will be required to connect the two networks and add a common connection to the Internet that can be shared?
hub
router
access point
Ethernet switch
In a lab test environment, a router has learned about network 172.16.1.0 through four different dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach this network?
D 172.16.1.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Serial0/0/0
O 172.16.1.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, Serial0/0/0
R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Serial0/0/0
I 172.16.1.0/24 [100/1192] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Serial0/0/0
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF network. The 10.10.0.0/16 network is not showing up in the routing table of Router1. What is the probable cause of this problem?
The serial interface on Router2 is down.
The OSPF process is not running on Router2.
The OSPF process is configured incorrectly on Router1.
There is an incorrect wildcard mask statement for network 10.10.0.0/16 on Router2.
Refer to the exhibit.
A technician has configured the interfaces on the Router, but upon inspection discovers that interface FastEthernet0/1 is not functioning. Which action will most likely correct the problem with FastEthernet0/1?
A clock rate should be added to the interface configuration.
The subnet mask should be added to the interface configuration.
An interface description needs to be added to the interface configuration.
The no shutdown command needs to be added to the interface configuration.
Which subnetting scheme will accommodate a network of 10 LANs, each of which contains a minimum of 2000 hosts?
10.0.0.0/10
10.0.0.0/11
172.16.0.0/18
172.16.0.0/20
Refer to the exhibit.
What does the highlighted entry for network 172.30.0.0/16 indicate?
Automatic summarization is enabled on R1.
The routing table of R2 contains only classful networks.
R2 will reject this update.
The routing protocol that is configured on both routers is RIPv1.
Which three statements about routing protocols are true? (Choose three.)
EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing.
RIP cannot be configured to allow classless routing.
OSPF elects designated routers on multiaccess links.
RIP does not advertise a route beyond a hop count of 15.
EIGRP uses broadcast traffic to establish adjacencies with its neighbors.
OSPF can convergence more quickly because it can find a feasible successor in its topology table when a successor route goes down.
Which statement correctly describes a feasible successor in EIGRP?
It is a primary route that is stored in the routing table.
It is a backup route that is stored in the routing table.
It is a primary route that is stored in the topology table.
It is a backup route that is stored in the topology table.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which host has a combination of IP address and subnet mask on the same network as Fa0/0 of Router1?
host A
host B
host C
host D
Which statement correctly describes a feature of RIP?
RIP is a link-state routing protocol.
RIP uses only one metric—hop count— for path selection.
Advertised routes with hop counts greater than 10 are unreachable.
Messages are broadcast every 10 seconds.
Refer to the exhibit.
All routers are properly configured with default configurations and are running the OSPF routing protocol. The network is fully converged. A host on the 192.168.3.0/24 network is communicating with a host on the 192.168.2.0/24 network.
Which path will be used to transmit the data?
The data will be transmitted via R3-R2.
The data will be transmitted via R3-R1-R2.
The traffic will be load-balanced between two paths — one via R3-R2, and the other via R3-R1-R2.
The data will be transmitted via R3-R2, and the other path via R3-R1-R2 will be retained as the backup path.
What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet?
used to confirm receipt of certain types of OSPF packets
used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers
used to request more information about any entry in the BDR
used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests
Expect minimum percentage: 94.8%
1. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running the same routing protocol. Based on the exhibit and its displayed commands, which statement is true? ans: The link to the ISP is not advertised by the routing protocol process.
2. Refer to the exhibit. While trying to diagnose a routing problem in the network, the network administrator runs the debug ip rip command. What can be determined from the output of this command? ans: The router will be unable to ping 192.168.1.2.
3. Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are unable to establish an adjacency. What is the possible cause for this? ans: The hello and dead intervals are different on the two routers.
4. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are directly connected via their serial interfaces and are both running the EIGRP routing protocol. R1 and R2 can ping the directly connected serial interface of their neighbor, but they cannot form an EIGRP neighbor adjacency. ans: Configure both routers with the same EIGRP process ID.
5. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R3 use different routing protocols with default administrative distance values. All devices are properly configured and the destination network is advertised by both protocols.
Which path will be used to transmit the data packets from PC1 to PC2? ans: The packets will travel via R2-R1.
6. Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 2? ans: It is the number of hops between R2 and the 192.168.8.0/24 network.
7. What is the function of the OSPF LSR packet? ans: It is used by the receiving routers to request more information about any entry in the DBD.
8. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.) ans: The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one. The router maintains the same source and destination IP. The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
9. Refer to the exhibit. The routers are properly configured using a dynamic routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Router A is forwarding data to router E. Which statement is true about the routing path? ans: If the network uses the RIP protocol, router A will determine that all paths have equal cost.
10. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has run the show interface command. The output of this command is displayed. What is the first step that is required to make this interface operational? ans: Issue the no shutdown command on the interface.
11. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIPv2 routing protocol and static routes are undefined. R1 can ping 192.168.2.1 and 10.1.1.2, but is unable to ping 192.168.4.1.
What is the reason for the ping failure? ans: The 192.168.4.0 network is not included in the RIP configuration of R2.
12. Refer to the exhibit. R2 is configured correctly. The network administrator has configured R1 as shown. Which two facts are true about the forwarding of route information by R1? (Choose two.) ans: R1 will forward the route information for subnet 192.168.100.0/30. R1 will forward the route information with an administrative distance set to 50.
13. Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2, and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. All routers are operational and pings are not blocked on this network.
Which ping will fail? ans: from R1 to 192.168.3.1
14. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as shown, and all interfaces are functioning correctly. A ping from R1 to 172.16.1.1 fails. What could be the cause of this problem? ans: The default route is configured incorrectly.
15. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.) ans: NVRAM - stores the configuration file POST - runs diagnostics on hardware modules
16. A network administrator uses the RIP routing protocol to implement routing within an autonomous system. What are two characteristics of this protocol? (Choose two.) ans: It uses the Bellman-Ford algorithm to determine the best path. It periodically sends complete routing tables to all connected devices.
17. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet. What is the reason for this? ans: The Fa0/1 interfaces of the two routers are configured for different subnets.
18. Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces are addressed and functioning correctly. The network administrator runs the tracert command on host A. Which two facts could be responsible for the output of this command? (Choose two.) ans: The entry for 192.168.2.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R1. The entry for 192.168.2.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R2.
19. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.) ans: It forwards data packets toward their destination. It acts as an intersection between multiple IP networks.
20. Which statement is true about the RIPv1 protocol? ans: It excludes subnet information from the routing updates.
21. Refer to the exhibit. To implement the RIPv2 protocol, the network administrator runs the commands as displayed. However, the show ip protocol command fails to display any output. How can the administrator solve the problem that is indicated by the lack of output from this command? ans: Specify the network for which RIP routing has to be enabled.
22. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is adding a new subnet of 50 hosts to R3. Which subnet address should be used for the new subnet that provides enough addresses while wasting a minimum of addresses? ans: 192.168.1.64/26
23. Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are unable to establish an adjacency. What two configuration changes will correct the problem? (Choose two.) ans: Configure the routers in the same area. Match the hello and dead timers on both routers.
24. What two routing protocols use a hierarchal network topology? (Choose two.) ans: IS-IS OSPF
25. Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is configured properly and all interfaces are functional. Router R1 has been installed recently. Host A is unable to ping host B.
Which procedure can resolve this problem? ans: Configure a static route on R1 using the IP address of S0/0/0 on R2.
26. All routers in a network are configured in a single OSPF area with the same priority value. No loopback interface has been set on any of the routers. Which secondary value will the routers use to determine the router ID? ans: The highest IP address among the active interfaces will be used.
27. Which two statements are true for link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.) ans: Routers that run a link-state protocol can establish a complete topology of the network. The shortest path first algorithm is used.
28. A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this? ans: The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.
29. Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run at R1. Which two facts about the newly detected device can be determined from the output? (Choose two.) ans: ABCD is a router that is connected to R1. The device is connected at the Serial0/0/1 interface of R1.
30. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.) ans: The routers must agree on the network type. The routers must use the same dead interval.
31. Refer to the exhibit. A ping between host A and host B is successful, but pings from host A to operational hosts on the Internet fail. What is the reason for this problem? ans: One of the default routes is configured incorrectly.
32. What two routing protocols will produce a shortest path first tree? (Choose two.) ans: IS-IS OSPF
33. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.) ans: The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value. Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process. No default route has been configured.
34. Refer to the exhibit. What action will R2 take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.2.0? ans: It will forward the packet to R1.
35. Refer to the exhibit. A router learns a route to the 192.168.6.0 network, as shown in the output of the show ip rip database command. However, upon running the show ip route command, the network administrator sees that the router has installed a different route to the 192.168.6.0 network learned via EIGRP. What could be the reason for the missing RIP route? ans: Compared to RIP, EIGRP has a lower administrative distance.
36. Which two components are used to determine the router ID in the configuration of the OSPF routing process? (Choose two.) ans: the highest IP address of any logical interface the highest IP address of any physical interface
37. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is accessing router R1 from the console port. Once the administrator is connected to the router, which password should the administrator enter at the R1> prompt to access the privileged EXEC mode? ans: Cisco789
38. Which routing protocol maintains a topology table separate from the routing table? ans: EIGRP
39. Refer to the exhibit. Which summarization should R1 use to advertise its networks to R2? ans: 192.168.0.0/22
40. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. The two networks 10.1.1.0/29 and 10.1.1.16/29 are unable to access each other. What can be the cause of this problem? ans: RIPv1 does not support discontiguous networks.
41. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are properly configured to use the EIGRP routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Which statement correctly describes the path that the traffic will use from the 10.1.1.0/24 network to the 10.1.2.0/24 network? ans: The traffic will be load-balanced between A-B-D and A-C-D.
42. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A? ans: B(config)# router rip B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
43. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.) ans: It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route. It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received.
44. Refer to the exhibit. The 10.4.0.0 network fails. What mechanism prevents R2 from receiving false update information regarding the 10.4.0.0 network? ans: split horizon
45. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are ultimate routes? ans: 5
46. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.) ans: All routes are stable. The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.
47. A router has learned two equal cost paths to a remote network via the EIGRP and RIP protocols. Both protocols are using their default configurations. Which path to the remote network will be installed in the routing table? ans: the path learned via EIGRP
48. Which two statements are true about the EIGRP successor route? (Choose two.) ans: It may be backed up by a feasible successor route. It is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to the destination.
49. Refer to the exhibit. The output of the show ip route command for router R1 is displayed. What action will the router take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.5? ans: It will forward the packet to the default gateway.
50. Refer to the exhibit. The hosts that are connected to R2 are unable to ping the hosts that are connected to R1. How can this problem be resolved? ans: Configure the R2 router interfaces for area 0.
51. In a lab test environment, a router has learned about network 172.16.1.0 through four different dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach this network? ans: D 172.16.1.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Serial0/0/0
52. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be derived from this output? (Choose two.) ans: Three network devices are directly connected to Router2. The serial interface between Router2 and Router3 is up.
53. How does route poisoning prevent routing loops? ans: Failed routes are advertised with a metric of infinity.
54. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wants to reduce the size of the routing table of R1. Which partial routing table entry in R1 represents the route summary for R2, without including any additional subnets? ans: 10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.5.0.0[90/205901] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0
55. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.) ans: 10.0.0.0/8 192.168.2.0/24
56. Refer to the exhibit. Although R2 is configured correctly, host A is unable to access the Internet. What are two static routes that can be configured on R1, either of which would enable Internet connectivity for host A? (Choose two.) ans: ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Fa0/1 ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.2
57. Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28? ans: Router4
58. Which statement is true about the metrics used by routing protocols? ans: A metric is a value used by a particular routing protocol to compare paths to remote networks.
59. Refer to the exhibit. Which two components are required to complete the configuration? (Choose two.) ans: a DTE device a V.35 cable
Expect minimum percentage: 90.2%
1. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.) ans: packet switching path selection
2. Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network administrator discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 172.16.0.0 network. Assuming Router2 is configured correctly, which two static routes could be configured on Router1 to enable Host A to reach network 172.16.0.0? (Choose two.) ans: ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0 ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2
3. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.) ans: Paris(config)# router eigrp 100 Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0 Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0
4. Refer to the exhibit. A packet enters Router1 with a destination IP of 172.16.28.121. Which routing table entry will be used to forward this packet to the destination address? ans: 172.16.16.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.17
5. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration? ans: Packets routed to the R2 Fast Ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.
6. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.) ans: 10.0.0.0/8 192.168.2.0/24
7. Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol. If network 10.0.0.0 goes down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing information back to Router2? ans: split horizon
8. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.) ans: The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route. The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120. The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C.
9. The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command. How will this route appear in the routing table? ans: S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
10. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.) ans: The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value. Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process. No default route has been configured.
11. The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology? ans: The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.
12. What is the purpose of the TTL field within an IP packet header? ans: limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded
13. Refer to the exhibit. When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from router C, which devices will be displayed in the output? ans: B, D
14. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26? ans: The packet will be dropped.
15. Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network 10.0.0.0 goes down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event? ans: Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0.
16. The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result? ans: The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24 network in its routing updates.
17. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.) ans: The serial interface between the two routers is down. The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.
18. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are running RIPv2 and EIGRP with default routing protocol settings and have interfaces configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Which protocol will be used and how will traffic between the Router1 LAN and Router5 LAN be routed through the network? ans: RIPv2 traffic will use the path Router1, Router2, Router5 because it has the least hops.
19. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.) ans: Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
20. What are two switching functions of a router? (Choose two.) ans: The router encapsulates the packet in the appropriate data link frame type for the outgoing data link. The router determines the exit interface after data encapsulation.
21. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network? ans: The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces.
22. When presented with multiple valid routes to a destination, what criteria does a router use to determine which routes to add to the routing table? ans: The router first selects routes with the lowest administrative distance. The resulting routes are then prioritized by metric and the routes with the best metric are added to the routing table.
23. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.) ans: NVRAM - stores the configuration file POST - runs diagnostics on hardware modules
24. Refer to the exhibit. What are the effects of the exhibited commands on the router? ans: Only the enable password is encrypted.
25. Refer to the exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link. Pings are failing between the two routers. What change by the administrator will correct the problem? ans: Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 192.168.0.1/30.
26. Which three statements about routing protocols are true? (Choose three.) ans: EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing. OSPF elects designated routers on multiaccess links. RIP does not advertise a route beyond a hop count of 15.
27. What is the first step OSPF and IS-IS routers take in building a shortest path first database? ans: send hello to discover neighbors and form adjacencies
28. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.) ans: The routers must agree on the network type. The routers must use the same dead interval.
29. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table? ans: The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.
30. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause? ans: 192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet.
31. Refer to the exhibit. Which two routes are child routes? (Choose two.) ans: 10.0.0.0 10.1.2.0
32. Refer to the exhibit. The results of the show ip route command are displayed in the graphic for Router R2. Which route will be selected for a packet with a destination address of 10.1.4.1? ans: route to 10.1.0.0/23
33. Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 192? ans: It is the metric, which is cost.
34. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A? ans: Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table.
35. A router has learned about a network through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach network 192.168.168.0? ans: S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1
36. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network? ans: It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates.
37. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.) ans: The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one. The router maintains the same source and destination IP. The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
38. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A? ans: B(config)# router rip B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
39. Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash? ans: Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.
40. Refer to exhibit. A company network engineer enters the following commands in the routers:
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2 R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
When the engineer enters the show ip route command on R1, the routing table does not display the static route to the 10.1.1.0 network. All R1 and R2 interfaces are correctly addressed per the graphic. What is a logical next step that the engineer could take in order to make the static route display in the routing table in R1? ans: Enable the R1 and R2 serial interfaces.
41. What should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose two.) ans: OSPF interval timers mismatch interface network type mismatch
42. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1? ans: 172.16.0.0/13
43. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0? ans: R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0
44. Refer to the exhibit. Which path will traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network take to get to the 10.0.0.0/24 network? ans: It will load balance the traffic between ADC and ABC
45. What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet? ans: used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests
46. Which statement is true regarding routing metrics? ans: Routers compare metrics to determine the best route.
47. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to determine why router JAX has no OSPF routes in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. From the JAX router, the administrator is able to ping its connected interfaces and the Fa0/1 interface of the ORL router but no other router interfaces. What is a logical step that the network administrator should take to troubleshoot the problem? ans"; Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating.
48. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.) ans: It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route. It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received.
49. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.) ans: As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table. If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology.
50. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.) ans: They are aware of the complete network topology. They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.
51. What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.) ans: tests Layer 2 connectivity enabled by default on each interface provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled
52. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router? ans: The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
53. Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? (Choose three.) ans: network address wildcard mask area ID
54. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router R1? ans: 198.18.48.0/21
55. A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area? ans: Router_A(config-router)# ip ospf update-default
56. What can be determined from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.) ans: Montgomery has Layer 2 connectivity with Cumberland. Brant, Fisherman, and Potomac are directly connected to Montgomery.
57. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1? ans: DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0.
58. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled "?" in the graphic? (Choose three.) ans: DCE CSU/DSU modem
59. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are both level 1 and qualify for use as an ultimate route? ans: 2
1. A network technician is asked to examine an existing switched network. Following this examination, the technician makes recommendations for adding new switches where needed and replacing existing equipment that hampers performance. The technician is given a budget and asked to proceed. Which two pieces of information would be helpful in determining necessary port density for new switches? (Choose two.) • forwarding rate • traffic flow analysis • expected future growth • number of required core connections • number of hubs that are needed in the access layer to increase performance
2. Configuring communication between devices on different VLANs requires the use of which layer of the OSI model? • Layer 1 • Layer 3 • Layer 4 • Layer 5
3. What is the likely impact of moving a conventional company architecture to a completely converged network? • Local analog phone service can be completely outsourced to cost-effective providers. • The Ethernet VLAN structure is less complex. • A shared infrastructure is created resulting in a single network to manage. • QoS issues are greatly reduced. • There is less bandwidth competition between voice and video streams.
4. Which hierarchical design model layer controls the flow of network traffic using policies and delineates broadcast domains by performing routing functions between virtual LANs (VLANs)? • application • access • distribution • network • core
5. A network administrator is selecting a switch that will operate at the network core. Which three features should the switch support for optimum network performance and reliability? (Choose three.) • port security • security policies • 10 Gigabit Ethernet • quality of service (QoS) • hot-swappable hardware • Power over Ethernet (PoE)
6. Which three features are commonly supported at the distribution layer of the Cisco hierarchical network model? (Choose three.) • security policies • Power over Ethernet • switch port security • quality of service • Layer 3 functionality • end user access to network
7. Which two features are supported at all three levels of the Cisco three-layer hierarchical model? (Choose two.) • Power over Ethernet • load balancing across redundant trunk links • redundant components • Quality of Service • link aggregation
8. Which two characteristics are associated with enterprise level switches? (Choose two.) • low port density • high forwarding rate • high latency level • support link aggregation • predefined number of ports
9. Link aggregation should be implemented at which layer of the hierarchical network? • core only • distribution and core • access and distribution • access, distribution, and core
10. For organizations that are implementing a voice over IP solution, what functionality should be enabled at all three layers of the hierarchical network? • Power over Ethernet • quality of service • switch port security • inter-VLAN routing
11. Which layer of the hierarchical design model provides a means of connecting devices to the network and controlling which devices are allowed to communicate on the network? • application • access • distribution • network • core
12. At which heirarchical layer are switches normally not required to process all ports at wire speed? • core layer • distribution layer • access layer • entry layer
13. Which layer of the OSI model does an access layer LAN switch use to make a forwarding decision? • Layer 1 • Layer 2 • Layer 3 • Layer 4
14. Refer to the exhibit. What characteristic of hierarchical network designs is exhibited by having SW3 connected to both SW1 and Sw2? • scalability • security • redundancy • maintainability
15. Which layer of the hierarchical network design model is refered to as the high-speed backbone of the internetwork, where high availability and redundancy are critical? • access layer • core layer • data-link layer • distribution layer • network layer • physical layer
16. What statement best describes a modular switch? • a slim-line chassis • allows interconnection of switches on redundant backplane • defined physical characteristics • flexible characteristics
17. A technician is attempting to explain Cisco StackWise technology to a client that is setting up three stackable switches. Which explanation accurately describes StackWise technology? • StackWise technology allows up to eight ports to be bound together to increase available bandwidth. • StackWise technology allows the switch to deliver power to end devices by using existing Ethernet cabling. • StackWise technology allows the switch capabilities and ports to be expanded by the addition of line cards. • StackWise technology allows up to nine switches to be interconnected via the use of a fully redundant backplane.
18. Which hierarchical design characteristic would be recommended at both the core and distribution layers to protect the network in the case of a route failure? • PoE • redundancy • aggregation • access lists
19. Which feature supports higher throughput in switched networks by combining multiple switch ports? • convergence • redundant links • link aggregation • network diameter
20. Refer to the exhibit. Beginning with HR servers and workstations, a network engineer is designing a new security structure for the network. Which set of • • policies adheres to the hierarchical network model design principles? • Implement Layer 3 switching on S1 to reduce the packet processing load on D1 and D2. Install all security processing on S1 to reduce network traffic load. • Configure port security options on S1. Use Layer 3 access control features on D1 and D2 to limit access to the HR servers to just the HR subnet. • Move all HR assets out of the data center and connect them to S1. Use Layer 3 security functions on S1 to deny all traffic into and out of S1. • Perform all port access and Layer 3 security functions on C1.
1. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired? • The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode. • The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data. • The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames. • The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.
2. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link? • No collisions will occur on this link. • Only one of the devices can transmit at a time. • The switch will have priority for transmitting data. • The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.
3. Refer to the exhibit. What action does SW1 take on a frame sent from PC_A to PC_C if the MAC address table of SW1 is empty? • SW1 drops the frame. • SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, except port Fa0/1. • SW1 floods the frame on all ports on the switch, except Fa0/23 and Fa0/1. • SW1 uses the CDP protocol to synchronize the MAC tables on both switches and then forwards the frame to all ports on SW2.
4. When a switch receives a frame and the source MAC address is not found in the switching table, what action will be taken by the switch to process the incoming frame? • The switch will request that the sending node resend the frame. • The switch will issue an ARP request to confirm that the source exists. • The switch will map the source MAC address to the port on which it was received. • The switch ends an acknowledgement frame to the source MAC of this incoming frame.
5. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and the hub have default configurations, and the switch has built its CAM table. Which of the hosts will capture a copy of the frame when workstation A sends a unicast packet to workstation C? • workstation C • workstations B and C • workstations A, B, C, and the interfaces of the router • workstations B, C, D, E, F, and interfaces of the router
6. Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains are depicted in the network? • 1 • 2 • 4 • 6 • 7 • 8
7. Which two statements about Layer 2 Ethernet switches are true? (Choose two.) • Layer 2 switches prevent broadcasts. • Layer 2 switches have multiple collision domains. • Layer 2 switches route traffic between different networks. • Layer 2 switches decrease the number of broadcast domains. • Layer 2 switches can send traffic based on the destination MAC address.
8. Which command line interface (CLI) mode allows users to configure switch parameters, such as the hostname and password? • user EXEC mode • privileged EXEC mode • global configuration mode • interface configuration mode
9. A network administrator uses the CLI to enter a command that requires several parameters. The switch responds with “% Incomplete command”. The administrator cannot remember the missing parameters. What can the administrator do to get the parameter information? append ? • to the last parameter • append a space and then ? to the last parameter • use Ctrl-P to show a parameter list. • use the Tab key to show which options are available
10. Where is the startup configuration stored? • DRAM • NVRAM • ROM • startup-config.text
11. If a network administrator enters these commands in global configuration mode on a switch, what will be the result? • Switch1(config-line)# line console 0 • Switch1(config-line)# password cisco • Switch1(config-line)# login
12. to secure the console port with the password “cisco” to deny access to the console port by specifying 0 lines are available to gain access to line configuration mode by supplying the required password to configure the privilege exec password that will be used for remote access problem? • incorrect vty lines configured • incompatible Secure Shell version • incorrect default gateway address • vty lines that are configured to allow only Telnet
13. Which two statements are true about EXEC mode passwords? (Choose two.) • The enable secret password command stores the configured password in plain text. • The enable secret password command provides better security than the enable password. • The enable password and enable secret password protect access to privileged EXEC mode. • The service password-encryption command is required to encrypt the enable secret password. Best practices require both the enable password and enable secret password to be configured and used simultaneously.
14. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows partial output of the show running-config command. The enable password on this switch is “cisco.” What can be determined from the output shown? • The enable password is encrypted by default. • An MD5 hashing algorithm was used on all encrypted passwords. • Any configured line mode passwords will be encrypted in this configuration. • This line represents most secure privileged EXEC mode password possible.
15. Which statement is true about the command banner login “Authorized personnel Only” issued on a switch? • The command is entered in privileged EXEC mode. • The command will cause the message Authorized personnel Only to display before a user logs in. • The command will generate the error message % Ambiguous command: “banner motd” ” to be displayed. • The command will cause the message End with the character “%” to be displayed after the command is entered into the switch.
16. What are two ways to make a switch less vulnerable to attacks like MAC address flooding, CDP attacks, and Telnet attacks? (Choose two.) • Enable CDP on the switch. • Change passwords regularly. • Turn off unnecessary services. • Enable the HTTP server on the switch. • Use the enable password rather than the enable secret password.
17. Which two statements are true regarding switch port security? (Choose two.) • The three configurable violation modes all log violations via SNMP. • Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch reboots. • The three configurable violation modes all require user intervention to re-enable ports. • After entering the sticky parameter, only MAC addresses subsequently learned are converted to secure MAC addresses. • If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached.
19. Refer to the exhibit. What happens when Host 1 attempts to send data? • Frames from Host 1 cause the interface to shut down. • Frames from Host 1 are dropped and no log message is sent. • Frames from Host 1 create a MAC address entry in the running-config. • Frames from Host 1 will remove all MAC address entries in the address table.
20. What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines? • The SSH client on the switch is enabled. • Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted. • A username/password combination is no longer needed to establish a secure remote connection to the switch. • The switch requires remote connections via proprietary client software.
21. Refer to the exhibit. A user on PC1 experiences a delay when accessing applications on the server. What two statements about latency are true? (Choose two.) • Each hop in the path adds delay to the overall latency. • Placing the bits on the wire at PC1 is propagation delay. • Total latency depends solely on the number of devices in the path. • The NIC delay at points A and F contributes to the overall latency. • The time it takes for an electrical signal to transit the segment from point C to point D is the cause for the propagation delay. • Because optimized routing algorithms are faster than switching algorithms, routers R1 and R2 are expected to add less latency than switches SW1 and SW2.
22. Refer to the exhibit. Which hosts will receive a broadcast frame sent from Host A? • hosts A and B • hosts D and E • hosts A, B, and C • hosts A, B, C, D, and E • hosts A, B, C, D, E, and F
Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true based on the output shown? (Choose two.)
• neighbors 192.168.10.9 and 192.168.10.5 have auto summary disabled.
• router 3 is load balancing traffic to the 172.16.3.0 network across its serial interfaces.
Final exam. Part 2:
Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)
• OSPF interval timers mismatch
• interface network type mismatch
• inconsistent authentication configuration
final exam. Part 2:
Refer to the exhibit. The ORL router is unable to form a neighbor relationship with the JAX router. What is a possible cause of this problem?
• The command network 192.168.2.0 is missing from the EIGRP configuration on the JAX router.
01. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.
02. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
No collisions will occur on this link.
Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.
03. Refer to the exhibit. What action does SW1 take on a frame sent from PC_A to PC_C if the MAC address table of SW1 is empty?
SW1 drops the frame.
SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, except port Fa0/1.
SW1 floods the frame on all ports on the switch, except Fa0/23 and Fa0/1.
SW1 uses the CDP protocol to synchronize the MAC tables on both switches and then forwards the frame to all ports on SW2.
04. When a switch receives a frame and the source MAC address is not found in the switching table, what action will be taken by the switch to process the incoming frame?
The switch will request that the sending node resend the frame.
The switch will issue an ARP request to confirm that the source exists.
The switch will map the source MAC address to the port on which it was received.
The switch ends an acknowledgement frame to the source MAC of this incoming frame.
05. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and the hub have default configurations, and the switch has built its CAM table. Which of the hosts will capture a copy of the frame when workstation A sends a unicast packet to workstation C?
workstation C
workstations B and C
workstations A, B, C, and the interfaces of the router
workstations B, C, D, E, F, and interfaces of the router
06. Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains are depicted in the network?
1
2
4
6
7
8
07. Which two statements about Layer 2 Ethernet switches are true? (Choose two.)
Layer 2 switches prevent broadcasts.
Layer 2 switches have multiple collision domains.
Layer 2 switches route traffic between different networks.
Layer 2 switches decrease the number of broadcast domains.
Layer 2 switches can send traffic based on the destination MAC address.
08. Which command line interface (CLI) mode allows users to configure switch parameters, such as the hostname and password?
user EXEC mode
privileged EXEC mode
global configuration mode
interface configuration mode
09. A network administrator uses the CLI to enter a command that requires several parameters. The switch responds with “% Incomplete command”. The administrator cannot remember the missing parameters. What can the administrator do to get the parameter information?
append ? to the last parameter
append a space and then ? to the last parameter
use Ctrl-P to show a parameter list
use the Tab key to show which options are available
10. Where is the startup configuration stored?
DRAM
NVRAM
ROM
startup-config.text
11. If a network administrator enters these commands on a switch, what will be the result?
Switch1(config-line)# line console 0
Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
Switch1(config-line)# login
to secure the console port with the password “cisco”
to deny access to the console port by specifying 0 lines are available
to gain access to line configuration mode by supplying the required password
to configure the privilege exec password that will be used for remote access
12. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has decided to allow only Secure Shell connections to Switch1. After the commands are applied, the administrator is able to connect to Switch1 using both Secure Shell and Telnet. What is most likely the problem?
incorrect vty lines configured
incorrect default gateway address
incompatible Secure Shell version
missing transport input ssh command
vty lines that are configured to allow only Telnet
13. Which two statements are true about EXEC mode passwords? (Choose two.)
The enable secret password command stores the configured password in plain text.
The enable secret password command provides better security than the enable password.
The enable password and enable secret password protect access to privileged EXEC mode.
The service password-encryption command is required to encrypt the enable secret password.
Best practices require both the enable password and enable secret password to be configured and used simultaneously.
14. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows partial output of the show running-config command. The enable password on this switch is “cisco.” What can be determined from the output shown?
The enable password is encrypted by default.
An MD5 hashing algorithm was used on all encrypted passwords.
Any configured line mode passwords will be encrypted in this configuration.
This line represents most secure privileged EXEC mode password possible.
15. Which statement is true about the command banner login “Authorized personnel Only” issued on a switch?
The command is entered in privileged EXEC mode.
The command will cause the message Authorized personnel Only to display before a user logs in.
The command will generate the error message % Ambiguous command: “banner motd” ” to be displayed.
The command will cause the message End with the character “%” to be displayed after the command is entered into the switch.
16. What are two ways to make a switch less vulnerable to attacks like MAC address flooding, CDP attacks, and Telnet attacks? (Choose two.)
Enable CDP on the switch.
Change passwords regularly.
Turn off unnecessary services.
Enable the HTTP server on the switch.
Use the enable password rather than the enable secret password.
17. Which two statements are true regarding switch port security? (Choose two.)
The three configurable violation modes all log violations via SNMP.
Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch reboots.
The three configurable violation modes all require user intervention to re-enable ports.
After entering the sticky parameter, only MAC addresses subsequently learned are converted to secure MAC addresses.
If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached.
18. Refer to the exhibit. What happens when Host 1 attempts to send data?
Frames from Host 1 cause the interface to shut down.
Frames from Host 1 are dropped and no log message is sent.
Frames from Host 1 create a MAC address entry in the running-config.
Frames from Host 1 will remove all MAC address entries in the address table.
19. What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?
The SSH client on the switch is enabled.
Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.
A username/password combination is no longer needed to establish a secure remote connection to the switch.
The switch requires remote connections via proprietary client software.
20. Refer to the exhibit. Which hosts will receive a broadcast frame sent from Host A?
hosts A and B
hosts B and C
hosts D and E
hosts A, B, and C
hosts B, C, D, and E
hosts A, B, C, D, E, and F
final exam. part 2:
Refer to exhibit. A company network engineer enters the following commands in the routers:R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1When the engineer enters the show ip route command on R1, the routing table does not display the static route to the 10.1.1.0 network. All R1 and R2 interfaces are correctly addressed per the graphic. What is a logical next step that the engineer could take in order to make the static route display in the routing table in R1?
• Enable the R1 and R2 serial interfaces
================================================
1. What switch port modes will allow a switch to successfully form a trunking link if the neighboring switch port is in "dynamic desirable" mode?
on, auto, or dynamic desirable mode
2. Refer to the exhibit. Computer 1 sends a frame to computer 4. On which links along the path between computer 1 and computer 4 will a VLAN ID tag be included with the frame?
C, E
3. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited configurations do not allow the switches to form a trunk. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
The trunk cannot be negotiated with both ends set to auto.
4. What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port fa0/1 from VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3?
Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
5. Which two statements describe the benefits of VLANs? (Choose two.)
VLANs improve network security by isolating users that have access to sensitive data and applications.
VLANs divide a network into smaller logical networks, resulting in lower susceptibility to broadcast storms.
6. What happens to the member ports of a VLAN when the VLAN is deleted?
The ports cannot communicate with other ports.
7. What is a valid consideration for planning VLAN traffic across multiple switches?
A trunk connection is affected by broadcast storms on any particular VLAN that is carried by that trunk.
8. What statement about the 802.1q trunking protocol is true?
802.1q will not perform operations on frames that are forwarded out access ports.
9. Switch port fa0/1 was manually configured as a trunk, but now it will be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/1?
Enter the switchport mode access command in interface configuration mode.
10. What statements describe how hosts on VLANs communicate?
Hosts on different VLANs communicate through routers.
11. Refer to the exhibit. Computer B is unable to communicate with computer D. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
Computer D does not have a proper address for the VLAN 3 address space.
12. Refer to the exhibit. SW1 and SW2 are new switches being installed in the topology shown in the exhibit. Interface Fa0/1 on switch SW1 has been configured with trunk mode “on”. Which statement is true about forming a trunk link between the switches SW1 and SW2?
Interface Fa0/2 on switch SW2 will negotiate to become a trunk link if it supports DTP.
13. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning interface Fa0/5?
Trunking can occur with non-Cisco switches.
14. Refer to the exhibit. How far is a broadcast frame that is sent by computer A propagated in the LAN domain?
computer D, computer G
15. What are two characteristics of VLAN1 in a default switch configuration? (Choose two.)
VLAN 1 is the management VLAN.
All switch ports are members of VLAN1.
16. The network administrator wants to separate hosts in Building A into two VLANs numbered 20 and 30. Which two statements are true concerning VLAN configuration? (Choose two.)
The VLANs may be named.
The network administrator may create the VLANs in either global configuration mode or VLAN database mode.
17. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Switch1 and Switch2 and assigned hosts on the IP addresses of the VLAN in the 10.1.50.0/24 subnet range. Computer A can communicate with computer B, but not with computer C or computer D. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
VLAN 50 is not allowed to entering the trunk between Switch1 and Switch2.
18. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn regarding the switch that produced the output shown? (Choose two.)
The command switchport access vlan 20 was entered in interface configuration mode for Fast Ethernet interface 0/1.
Devices attached to ports fa0/5 through fa0/8 cannot communicate with devices attached to ports fa0/9 through fa0/12 without the use of a Layer 3 device.
19. A network administrator is removing several VLANs from a switch. When the administrator enters the no vlan 1 command, an error is received. Why did this command generate an error?
VLAN 1 can never be deleted.
20. Refer to the exhibit. Company HR is adding PC4, a specialized application workstation, to a new company office. The company will add a switch, S3, connected via a trunk link to S2, another switch. For security reasons the new PC will reside in the HR VLAN, VLAN 10. The new office will use the 172.17.11.0/24 subnet. After installation, the existing PCs are unable to access shares on PC4. What is the likely cause?
PC4 must use the same subnet as the other HR VLAN PCs.
21. What is the effect of the switchport mode dynamic desirable command?
A trunk link is formed if the remote connected device is configured with the switchport mode dynamic auto or switchport mode trunk commands.
Final Exam Aswer - CCNA 2 Router and Routing Basics
1
What are two possible reasons a router would not load a
valid IOS from flash? (Choose two.)
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>The configuration register is set to 0x2142.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>The first boot system command executed in the startup
configuration file is boot system rom.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>The configuration register is set to 0x2100.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>The boot field is set to the hexadecimal number 2.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>The startup configuration file is missing or corrupt.
2
What are two recommended uses of login banners? (Choose
cellpadding='0'>This is a standard IP access list that denies network
192.28.115.0 Telnet access to the 172.20.0.0 network.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>All Telnet traffic destined for 172.20.0.0 from any
network will be denied access.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Network 192.28.115.0 is denied Telnet access to the
172.20.0.0 network.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Network 172.20.0.0 is denied Telnet access to the
192.28.115.0 network.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>All FTP and HTTP traffic destined for 172.20.0.0 will be
permitted access.
31
Which two steps describe how to create a functional
physical connection between a router console and a terminal? (Choose two.)
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Use a crossover cable to connect the terminal serial
port to the router console port.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Use a rollover cable to connect the terminal NIC to the
router console port.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Use an RJ-45 to DB-9 adapter on the terminal serial port
to connect to the cable going to the router console.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Use a transceiver to connect a straight-through cable to
the router console port.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Use a straight-through cable to connect the router
console port to the terminal NIC.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Use a rollover cable to connect from a terminal serial
port to the router console port.
32
What critical information about the status of the router
can be found in the outputs of both the show interfaces and show
protocols commands? (Choose two.)
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>the Layer 3 address of each configured interface
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>the routing protocol configured to forward updates out
of each interface
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>the operational status of each interface
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>traffic statistics for each interface
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>whether the interface is configured as a DTE or DCE
33
src='pic/image049.jpg'
v:shapes='_x0000_i2024' />
The following access list has been created to prevent traffic from the
192.0.2.63 host on the Sales LAN from accessing servers and hosts on the
Payroll LAN.
access-list 26 deny host 192.0.2.63
access-list 26 permit any
Refer to the exhibit. Which group of commands will properly place the
access list so that only the host on the Sales LAN is denied access to the
172.29.7.0 network but all other traffic is permitted?
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Payroll(config)# interface fa0/0
Payroll(config-if)# ip access-group 26 out
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Payroll(config)# interface fa0/1
Payroll(config-if)# ip access-group 26 out
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Sales(config)# interface fa0/1
Sales(config-if)# ip access-group 26 in
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Sales(config)# interface fa0/0
Sales(config-if)# ip access-group 26 out
34
src='pic/image048.jpg'
v:shapes='_x0000_i2026' />
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming default metrics are used and the network is
fully converged, which path will RIP use to send a packet from Router A to
Router F?
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>A, D, E, F
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>A, B, D, E, F
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>A, C, D, E, G, F
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>A, B, D, E, G, F
35
src='pic/image050.jpg'
v:shapes='_x0000_i2028' />
Refer to the graphic. Communication is needed between the LAN connected to
the fa0/0 interface of the Kansas router and the fa0/0 interface of the
Maine router. All hosts on those LANs also need connectivity to the
Internet. Which commands will allow this communication? (Choose three).
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Kansas(config)# ip route 192.168.6.0 255.255.255.0
172.18.64.2
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Kansas(config)# ip route 192.168.6.0 255.255.255.0
s0/1
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Kansas(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Maine(config)# ip route 192.168.6.0 255.255.255.0
172.18.64.1
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Maine(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Maine(config)# ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.255.0
172.18.64.2
36
Why are interface descriptions used in router
configurations? (Choose three).
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>to enable support personnel to easily identify networks
and customers that may be affected by a possible interface issue
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>to provide comments on the interface without affecting
the router functionality
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>to display access warning messages before users enter
the interface configuration mode
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>to eliminate the need to use IP addresses when using the ping and telnet commands
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>to identify the purpose and location of the interface
37
src='pic/image051.jpg'
v:shapes='_x0000_i2030' />
A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network
diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from
being sent to Router A?
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>A(config)# no router rip
38
What could a Cisco support technician learn from the IOS
filename c2600-d-mz.121-3? (Choose three.)
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>the format of the file
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>the RAM memory requirements of the file
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>the version number of the file
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>the size of the file
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>the device platform of the file
39
src='pic/image052.jpg'
v:shapes='_x0000_i2032' />
While planning an IOS upgrade, the administrator issues the show version command. Based on the output in the graphic, what is the current IOS boot
location?
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>RAM
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>NVRAM
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Flash
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>ROM
40
A new technician must add boot system commands to one of
the department routers. Which available commands will the router return as
output when the command shown below is entered? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# boot system ?
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>RAM
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>NVRAM
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>IOS
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>IP Address
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>TFTP
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>FLASH
41
From the running-config, the following configuration
entries are displayed:
Router(config)# line vty 0 2
Router(config-line)# password g8k33pr
Router(config-line)# login
What can be interpreted from the exhibited configuration? (Choose two.)
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Three Telnet lines are available for remote access.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Two Telnet lines are available for remote access.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Future configuration of the remaining Telnet lines will
require the password to be set to g8k33pr.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>To login to the remote device, g8k33pr will be used as
the Telnet and secret password.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Remote access to this local router will require a Telnet
password of g8k33pr.
42
Which router component stores the information that is
displayed by the show running-config command?
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>flash
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>NVRAM
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>RAM
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>ROM
43
What are two characteristics of the support for Telnet
within Cisco IOS software? (Choose two.)
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Up to five separate Telnet lines are supported by
default in standard edition IOS files.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>For security purposes, Telnet sessions are required to
be established from the privileged mode.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>A router can host simultaneous Telnet sessions.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Once established, a Telnet session can remain
operational regardless of network status.
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Telnet tests wireless connectivity and does not require
a physical connection between devices to gain remote access.
44
Which router components and operations are correctly
described? (Choose two.)
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>RAM - stores the ARP cache
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>NVRAM - store the operating system
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>ROM - stores the backup IOS
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>POST - verifies the validity of the running-config
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Flash - executes diagnostics at bootup
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>DRAM - loads the bootstrap
45
src='pic/image034.jpg'
v:shapes='_x0000_i2034' />
Given the output shown in the exhibit, in what order and location will the
router search for the IOS if no boot system commands are found in
the startup-config file?
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>ROM, Flash, TFTP server
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Flash, NVRAM, RAM
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>ROM, TFTP server, Flash
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>RAM, Flash, NVRAM
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Flash, TFTP server, ROM
46
What can a network administrator do to recover from a
lost router password?
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>perform a reload or reset
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>telnet from another router and issue the show
running-config command to view the password
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>boot the router to ROM monitor mode and configure the
router to ignore NVRAM when it initializes
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>boot the router to bootROM mode and enter the b command to load the IOS manually
47
src='pic/image036.jpg'
v:shapes='_x0000_i2036' />
Neither router in the exhibit has a host table or DNS available. The
interfaces and passwords have been correctly configured. Which of the following
commands will initiate a Telnet session? (Choose two.)
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Tottenham# telnet Oxford
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Tottenham> telnet 198.18.139.1
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Oxford# connect 198.18.139.0
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Oxford> connect Tottenham
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Oxford# telnet Tottenham
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Oxford# 198.18.139.2
48
If a PC does not have network connectivity to a router,
which router port can be used to establish communication?
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>console
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>Ethernet
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>serial
cellpadding='0'>
cellpadding='0'>VTY
1. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause? • The address is in the wrong subnet. • 192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet. • The default gateway is incorrect. • The host address and default gateway are swapped.
1 What are some reasons to change the configuration register setting? (Choose two.)
*** to force the system to ignore the configuration file stored in NVRAM
to monitor password changes
to change the POST sequence
to force the router to boot the IOS from NVRAM
*** to force the system into ROM monitor mode
2 Given the output shown in the exhibit, in what order and location will the router search for the IOS if no boot system commands are found in the startup-config file?
ROM, Flash, TFTP server
Flash, NVRAM, RAM
ROM, TFTP server, Flash
RAM, Flash, NVRAM
*** Flash, TFTP server, ROM
3 Which statements are true regarding setup mode? (Choose three.)
Press Ctrl-z to terminate setup mode.
*** Enter a question mark (?) for help at any point.
Press Spacebar to accept the default settings.
Use setup mode to enter complex protocol features.
*** Press Enter to accept the default settings.
*** Press Ctrl-c to abort configuration dialog.
4 What are two possible reasons for this result? (Choose two.)
The startup-config file was not saved to RAM before reboot.
The IOS has been erased.
*** The router has not been configured.
*** The startup-config file cannot be located.
The router will not enter initial configuration dialog.
5 A new technician must add boot system commands to one of the department routers. Which available commands will the router return as output when the command shown below is entered? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# boot system ?
RAM
NVRAM
IOS
IP Address
*** TFTP
*** FLASH
6 Router A and Router B have been correctly configured to use RIP as a dynamic routing protocol and all intefaces on Router A and Router B are reporting "interface is up, line protocol is up" status. RIP is then configured on Router C using the following commands:
RouterC(config)# router rip
RouterC(config-router)# network 192.168.4.0
RouterC(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0
If no additional routing is configured on Router A, Router B, and Router C, what will be the result?
Networks 192.168.12.0/24, 192.168.4.0/24, and 172.16.0.0/16 will be unreachable from Router A.
Router A will have no knowledge of network 192.168.12.0/24, but will have routes to networks 192.168.4.0/24 and 172.16.0.0/16.
All networks shown in the graphic will be reachable by Router A, Router B, and Router C.
*** Networks 192.168.4.0/24 and 172.16.0.0/16 will be unreachable from Router A and Router B.
7 The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result?
The ip classless command is not enabled on the Richmond router.
The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24 network in its routing updates.
The Richmond router is in a different autonomous system than the Suffolk router.
The ip subnet-zero command was not configured on the Suffolk router.
*** The ip classless command is not enabled on the Suffolk router.
8 A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64
A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32
*** B(config)# router rip
*** B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
A(config)# no router rip
9 Which router component stores the information that is displayed by the show running-config command?
flash
NVRAM
*** RAM
ROM
10 If a PC does not have network connectivity to a router, which router port can be used to establish communication?
*** console
Ethernet
serial
VTY
11 What information can be learned during the initial router bootup? (Choose two.)
the configuration register value
*** the number and types of interfaces installed
*** the router model and the amount of memory that is available
the amount of memory required to load the IOS and configuration
the number of interfaces with connected cables
12 Which devices can be used to convert the data from a WAN router at the customer site into a form acceptable for use by the WAN service provider? (Choose three.)
Ethernet switch
DTE
*** modem
hub
*** DCE device
*** CSU/DSU
13 What are the primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
*** determine the best path for packets
prevent collisions on the network LAN
regulate flow control between sender and receiver
provide domain name resolution
*** forward packets to the appropriate interface
14 Which of the following are correct statements verified by the router output shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
Layer 3 connectivity exists between BigCity and the devices in the Device ID column.
*** Layer 2 connectivity exists between BigCity and the devices in the Device ID column.
All devices shown in the Device ID column use the TCP/IP protocol suite.
All devices shown in the Device ID column can be pinged from BigCity.
*** All devices listed in the Device ID column are directly connected to BigCity.
15 What are the results of setting the boot field bits in the configuration register to "0000"? (Choose two.)
The startup-config file will be ignored at bootup.
The router will load the IOS from Flash.
*** The router will enter ROM monitor mode upon reload.
The router will enter boot ROM mode and have limited capabilities.
*** The administrator can enter the b command to manually boot the IOS.
16 What can a network administrator do to recover from a lost router password?
perform a reload or reset
telnet from another router and issue the show running-config command to view the password
*** boot the router to ROM monitor mode and configure the router to ignore NVRAM when it initializes
boot the router to bootROM mode and enter the b command to load the IOS manually
17 Which router components and operations are correctly described? (Choose two.)
*** RAM - stores the ARP cache
NVRAM - store the operating system
*** ROM - stores the backup IOS
POST - verifies the validity of the running-config
Flash - executes diagnostics at bootup
DRAM - loads the bootstrap
18 Which of the following commands will correctly configure an extended ACL? (Choose two).
19 The following access list has been created to prevent traffic from the 192.0.2.63 host on the Sales LAN from accessing servers and hosts on the Payroll LAN.
access-list 26 deny host 192.0.2.63
access-list 26 permit any
Refer to the exhibit. Which group of commands will properly place the access list so that only the host on the Sales LAN is denied access to the 172.29.7.0 network but all other traffic is permitted?
Payroll(config)# interface fa0/0
Payroll(config-if)# ip access-group 26 out
*** Payroll(config)# interface fa0/1
*** Payroll(config-if)# ip access-group 26 out
Sales(config)# interface fa0/1
Sales(config-if)# ip access-group 26 in
Sales(config)# interface fa0/0
Sales(config-if)# ip access-group 26 out
20 Refer to the graphic. Communication is needed between the LAN connected to the fa0/0 interface of the Kansas router and the fa0/0 interface of the Maine router. All hosts on those LANs also need connectivity to the Internet. Which commands will allow this communication? (Choose three).
*** Kansas(config)# ip route 192.168.6.0 255.255.255.0 172.18.64.2
Kansas(config)# ip route 192.168.6.0 255.255.255.0 s0/1
*** Kansas(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1
Maine(config)# ip route 192.168.6.0 255.255.255.0 172.18.64.1
*** Maine(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1
Maine(config)# ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.255.0 172.18.64.2
21 A network administrator must configure a FastEthernet interface with an IP address. The configuration must also identify the remote site to which the interface is connected. Which set of commands will meet these requirements?
StPetersburg(config)# banner San Jose T1
StPetersburg(config)# interface fa0/0
StPetersburg(config-if)# ip address 172.26.155.5 255.255.255.252
StPetersburg(config)# interface fa0/0
StPetersburg(config-if)# ip address 172.26.155.5 netmask 255.255.255.252
StPetersburg(config-if)# description San Jose T1
StPetersburg(config)# interface fa0/0
StPetersburg(config-if)# ip address 172.26.155.5 255.255.255.252
StPetersburg(config-if)# banner remote site San Jose T1
*** StPetersburg(config)# interface fa0/0
*** StPetersburg(config-if)# ip address 172.26.155.5 255.255.255.252
*** StPetersburg(config-if)# description San Jose T1
22 A network administrator issues the erase startup-config command on a configured router with the configuration register set to 0x2102 and observes the following output:
Erasing the nvram filesystem will remove all files! Continue? [Confirm]
[OK]
Erase of nvram: complete
If the router unexpectedly loses power after this sequence, what will occur when power is restored?
The router will enter ROM monitor mode upon completion of the power-on self test (POST).
The router will load the last known valid configuration file.
The router will enter Rx-boot mode.
*** The router will prompt the user to enter setup mode or to continue without entering setup mode.
23 The main router of XYZ company has enough flash and RAM to store multiple IOS images. An administrator wants to upload a second IOS image from a TFTP server to the flash of the router. Which method will accomplish this task?
Paste the IOS filename to the command line of the router while in global configuration mode. Press enter. Then issue the copy tftp flash command.
Use the setup utility to load the new image to flash.
Copy the IOS image file from a TFTP server using the command copy filename ip address flash .
*** Copy the IOS image file from a TFTP server using the command copy tftp flash. When prompted, provide the IP address or name of the TFTP server and the IOS image filename.
24 What facts can be determined from the highlighted text shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
*** A weak encryption was applied to all unencrypted passwords.
The enable password is now more secure than the enable secret password.
An MD5 hashing algorithm was used on all encrypted passwords.
*** Any configured user EXEC mode or Telnet passwords will be encrypted in this configuration.
The service password-encryption command was used to encrypt all passwords on the router including enable secret.
25 What are the features of a serial interface on a router? (Choose two.)
enabled by default
assigned a unique MAC address
must be configured as a DCE in lab and production environments
must be configured with the default clock rate of 56000
*** may be administratively enabled by using the no shutdown command
*** must be configured with a valid IP address and subnet mask in order to forward packets
26 What are two recommended uses of login banners? (Choose two.)
*** to display security warning messages
to welcome any user to the router
to warn people about misusing privileged EXEC mode
to identify circuits and other devices connected to the router
*** to announce a scheduled system shutdown
27 While planning an IOS upgrade, the administrator issues the show version command. Based on the output in the graphic, what is the current IOS boot location?
RAM
NVRAM
*** Flash
ROM
28 Why are interface descriptions used in router configurations? (Choose three).
*** to enable support personnel to easily identify networks and customers that may be affected by a possible interface issue
*** to provide comments on the interface without affecting the router functionality
to display access warning messages before users enter the interface configuration mode
to eliminate the need to use IP addresses when using the ping and telnet commands
*** to identify the purpose and location of the interface
29 What are two characteristics of the support for Telnet within Cisco IOS software? (Choose two.)
*** Up to five separate Telnet lines are supported by default in standard edition IOS files.
For security purposes, Telnet sessions are required to be established from the privileged mode.
*** A router can host simultaneous Telnet sessions.
Once established, a Telnet session can remain operational regardless of network status.
Telnet tests wireless connectivity and does not require a physical connection between devices to gain remote access.
30 Neither router in the exhibit has a host table or DNS available. The interfaces and passwords have been correctly configured. Which of the following commands will initiate a Telnet session? (Choose two.)
Tottenham# telnet Oxford
*** Tottenham> telnet 198.18.139.1
Oxford# connect 198.18.139.0
Oxford> connect Tottenham
Oxford# telnet Tottenham
*** Oxford# 198.18.139.2
31 From the running-config, the following configuration entries are displayed:
Router(config)# line vty 0 2
Router(config-line)# password g8k33pr
Router(config-line)# login
What can be interpreted from the exhibited configuration? (Choose two.)
*** Three Telnet lines are available for remote access.
Two Telnet lines are available for remote access.
Future configuration of the remaining Telnet lines will require the password to be set to g8k33pr.
To login to the remote device, g8k33pr will be used as the Telnet and secret password.
*** Remote access to this local router will require a Telnet password of g8k33pr.
32 Assuming the following ACL is correctly applied to a router interface, what can be concluded about this set of commands? (Choose two.)
This is a standard IP access list that denies network 192.28.115.0 Telnet access to the 172.20.0.0 network.
All Telnet traffic destined for 172.20.0.0 from any network will be denied access.
*** Network 192.28.115.0 is denied Telnet access to the 172.20.0.0 network.
Network 172.20.0.0 is denied Telnet access to the 192.28.115.0 network.
*** All FTP and HTTP traffic destined for 172.20.0.0 will be permitted access.
33 What can be concluded from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose three.)
*** This is a standard IP access list.
This is an extended IP access list.
*** The keyword host is implied in the command line access-list 99 deny 10.213.177.76.
The wildcard mask must be configured for this access list to function properly.
*** Host 10.213.177.100 will be allowed access to the Serial0/1 interface.
34 access-list 199 deny tcp 178.15.0.0 0.0.255.255 any eq 23
access-list 199 permit ip any any
Assuming this ACL is correctly applied to a router interface, which statements describe traffic on the network? (Choose two.)
*** All FTP traffic from network 178.15.0.0 will be permitted.
All Telnet traffic destined for network 178.15.0.0 will be denied.
Telnet and FTP will be permitted from all hosts on network 178.15.0.0 to any destination.
*** Telnet will not be permitted from any hosts on network 178.15.0.0 to any destination.
Telnet will not be permitted to any host on network 178.15.0.0 from any destination.
35 Hosts from the Limerick LAN are not allowed access to the Shannon LAN but should be able to access the Internet. Which set of commands will create a standard ACL that will apply to traffic on the Shannon router interface Fa0/0 implementing this security?
36 Refer to the exhibit. Router D interface S0 on has gone down. What is the maximum time that will elapse before Router A learns that network 168.58.14.0 is down?
5 seconds
13 seconds
*** 17 seconds
25 seconds
30 seconds
77 seconds
37 Refer to the graphic. Which series of commands will create static routes that will allow Router A and Router B to deliver packets destined for LAN A and LAN B, and direct all other traffic to the Internet?
RouterA(config)# ip route 10.90.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2
RouterB(config)# ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.1
RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0
RouterA(config)# ip route 10.90.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2
RouterA(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.3.2
RouterB(config)# ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.1
RouterA(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.3.2
RouterB(config)# ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.1
RouterB(config)# ip route 172.20.20.4 255.255.255.252 s0/0
*** RouterA(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.3.2
*** RouterB(config)# ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.1
*** RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0
38 Refer to the exhibit. The new security policy for the company allows all IP traffic from the Engineering LAN to the Internet while only web traffic from the Marketing LAN is allowed to the Internet. Which ACL can be applied in the outbound direction of Serial 0/1 on the Marketing router to implement the new security policy?
access-list 197 permit ip 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any
access-list 197 permit ip 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www
access-list 165 permit ip 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any
access-list 165 permit tcp 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www
access-list 165 permit ip any any
*** access-list 137 permit ip 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any
*** access-list 137 permit tcp 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www
access-list 89 permit 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any
access-list 89 permit tcp 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www
39 What will occur when the following ACL is applied inbound to both FastEthernet interfaces of Router A in the graphic?
access-list 125 permit tcp 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www
*** Workstations A and B will be able to Telnet to each other. Workstation A will be allowed to access Web servers on the Internet, while Workstation B will be denied Internet Web access.
Workstations A and B will be able to Telnet to each other. All other traffic will be denied.
The ACL will have no effect because it should be applied in the outbound direction on the FastEthernet interfaces.
The ACL will deny all traffic because of the implied deny ip any any statement at the end of the ACL.
40 What are two possible reasons a router would not load a valid IOS from flash? (Choose two.)
The configuration register is set to 0x2142.
*** The first boot system command executed in the startup configuration file is boot system rom.
*** The configuration register is set to 0x2100.
The boot field is set to the hexadecimal number 2.
The startup configuration file is missing or corrupt.
41 A network administrator has a console connection to the Fremantle router. Pings to Melville are successful, but pings to Cottesloe and Nedlands fail. What could be a first step in troubleshooting the problem?
Use an extended ping from Fremantle to each router in the network.
*** Use the show interfaces command from a Telnet session on Melville to check the connection to Cottesloe.
Use the traceroute command to discover exactly which link in the network is down.
Use the show cdp neighbors detail command from Fremantle to gather information about all Cisco routers in the network.
42 What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.)
*** provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled
*** tests Layer 2 connectivity
*** enabled by default on each interface
provides a layer of security
used for debugging Layer 4 connectivity issues
43 Which two steps describe how to create a functional physical connection between a router console and a terminal? (Choose two.)
Use a crossover cable to connect the terminal serial port to the router console port.
Use a rollover cable to connect the terminal NIC to the router console port.
*** Use an RJ-45 to DB-9 adapter on the terminal serial port to connect to the cable going to the router console.
Use a transceiver to connect a straight-through cable to the router console port.
Use a straight-through cable to connect the router console port to the terminal NIC.
*** Use a rollover cable to connect from a terminal serial port to the router console port.
44 Refer to the exhibit. Assuming default metrics are used and the network is fully converged, which path will RIP use to send a packet from Router A to Router F?
*** A, D, E, F
A, B, D, E, F
A, C, D, E, G, F
A, B, D, E, G, F
45 Based on this partial output of the show ip route command, which routing protocol is configured on the router?
I 172.16.3.0/24 [100/80135] via 172.16.2.2, 00:00:27, Serial0/0
RIP v1
RIP v2
*** IGRP
EIGRP
OSPF
IGP
46 Why are routed protocols important to networking? (Choose two.)
Routed protocols detect collisions and fragments.
Routers use routed protocols to calculate the best path to a destination.
*** Routed protocols transport data across the network.
*** The fields and formats used within a packet are defined by routed protocols.
Routed protocols are used to configure the metrics used by routing protocols.
47 What could a Cisco support technician learn from the IOS filename c2600-d-mz.121-3? (Choose three.)
*** the format of the file
the RAM memory requirements of the file
*** the version number of the file
the size of the file
*** the device platform of the file
48 What critical information about the status of the router can be found in the outputs of both the show interfaces and show protocols commands? (Choose two.)
*** the Layer 3 address of each configured interface
the routing protocol configured to forward updates out of each interface
*** the operational status of each interface
traffic statistics for each interface
whether the interface is configured as a DTE or DCE
49 Which of the following are true statements regarding IGRP and RIP? (Choose two.)
*** IGRP uses a combination of different metrics for path selection.
RIP is a proprietary protocol developed by Cisco.
RIP has the ability to scale to large networks.
*** IGRP has the ability to scale to large networks.
1. What are two possible reasons a router would not load a valid IOS from flash? (Choose two.)
The configuration register is set to 0×2142.
The first boot system command executed in the startup configuration file is boot system rom.
The configuration register is set to 0×2100.
2. What are two recommended uses of login banners? (Choose two.)
to display security warning messages
to announce a scheduled system shutdown
3. Router A and Router B have been correctly configured to use RIP as a dynamic routing protocol and all intefaces on Router A and Router B are reporting "interface is up, line protocol is up" status. RIP is then configured on Router C using the following commands:
RouterC(config)# router rip
RouterC(config-router)# network 192.168.4.0
RouterC(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0
If no additional routing is configured on Router A, Router B, and Router C, what will be the result?
Networks 192.168.4.0/24 and 172.16.0.0/16 will be unreachable from Router A and Router B.
4. What are the primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
determine the best path for packets
forward packets to the appropriate interface
5. What are some reasons to change the configuration register setting? (Choose two.)
to force the system to ignore the configuration file stored in NVRAM
to force the system into ROM monitor mode
8. The main router of XYZ company has enough flash and RAM to store multiple IOS images. An administrator wants to upload a second IOS image from a TFTP server to the flash of the router. Which method will accomplish this task?
Copy the IOS image file from a TFTP server using the command copy tftp flash. When prompted, provide the IP address or name of the TFTP server and the IOS image filename.
9. A network administrator has a console connection to the Fremantle router. Pings to Melville are successful, but pings to Cottesloe and Nedlands fail. What could be a first step in troubleshooting the problem?
Use the show interfaces command from a Telnet session on Melville to check the connection to Cottesloe.
10. Hosts from the Limerick LAN are not allowed access to the Shannon LAN but should be able to access the Internet. Which set of commands will create a standard ACL that will apply to traffic on the Shannon router interface Fa0/0 implementing this security?
access-list 56 deny 172.19.123.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 56 permit any
11. Which of the following commands will correctly configure an extended ACL?
Router(config)# access-list 102 permit tcp 10.43.0.0 0.0.255.255 any eq 80
12. What are the results of setting the boot field bits in the configuration register to "0000"?
The router will enter ROM monitor mode upon reload.
The administrator can enter the b command to manually boot the IOS.
15. During initial router bootup the following line appears:
"NVRAM invalid, possibly due to write erase."
What are two possible reasons for this result? (Choose two.)
The router has not been configured.
The startup-config file cannot be located.
16. Assuming this ACL is correctly applied to a router interface, which statements describe traffic on the network? (Choose two.)
All Telnet traffic destined for network 178.15.0.0 will be denied.
Telnet will not be permitted from any hosts on network 178.15.0.0 to any destination.
17. What facts can be determined from the highlighted text shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A weak encryption was applied to all unencrypted passwords.
Any configured user EXEC mode or Telnet passwords will be encrypted in this configuration.
19. What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.)
provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled
tests Layer 2 connectivity
enabled by default on each interface
20. What information can be learned during the initial router bootup? (Choose two.)
the number and types of interfaces installed
the router model and the amount of memory that is available
21.
What can be concluded from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose three.)
This is a standard IP access list.
The keyword host is implied in the command line access-list 99 deny 10.213.177.76.
Host 10.213.177.100 will be allowed access to the Serial0/1 interface.
22. Which statements are true regarding setup mode? (Choose three.)
Enter a question mark (?) for help at any point.
Press Enter to accept the default settings.
Press Ctrl-c to abort configuration dialog.
23.
Refer to the graphic. Which series of commands will create static routes that will allow Router A and Router B to deliver packets destined for LAN A and LAN B, and direct all other traffic to the Internet?
RouterA(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.3.2
RouterB(config)# ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.1
RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0
25.
What will occur when the following ACL is applied inbound to both FastEthernet interfaces of Router A in the graphic?
Workstations A and B will be able to Telnet to each other. Workstation A will be allowed to access Web servers on the Internet, while Workstation B will be denied Internet Web access.
26. Based on this partial output of the show ip route command, which routing protocol is configured on the router?
RIP
27.
Which of the following are correct statements verified by the router output shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
Layer 2 connectivity exists between BigCity and the devices in the Device ID column.
All devices listed in the Device ID column are directly connected to BigCity.
28. A network administrator must configure a FastEthernet interface with an IP address. The configuration must also identify the remote site to which the interface is connected. Which set of commands will meet these requirements?
StPetersburg(config)# interface fa0/0
StPetersburg(config-if)# ip address 172.26.155.5 255.255.255.252
StPetersburg(config-if)# description San Jose T1
29. What are the features of a serial interface on a router? (Choose two.)
may be administratively enabled by using the no shutdown command
must be configured with a valid IP address and subnet mask in order to forward packets
30. Assuming the following ACL is correctly applied to a router interface, what can be concluded about this set of commands? (Choose two.)
Network 192.28.115.0 is denied Telnet access to the 172.20.0.0 network.
All FTP and HTTP traffic destined for 172.20.0.0 will be permitted access.
31. Which two steps describe how to create a functional physical connection between a router console and a terminal? (Choose two.)
Use an RJ-45 to DB-9 adapter on the terminal serial port to connect to the cable going to the router console.
Use a rollover cable to connect from a terminal serial port to the router console port.
32. What critical information about the status of the router can be found in the outputs of both the show interfaces and show protocols commands? (Choose two.)
the Layer 3 address of each configured interface
the operational status of each interface
33.
The following access list has been created to prevent traffic from the 192.0.2.63 host on the Sales LAN from accessing servers and hosts on the Payroll LAN.
access-list 26 deny host 192.0.2.63
access-list 26 permit any
Refer to the exhibit. Which group of commands will properly place the access list so that only the host on the Sales LAN is denied access to the 172.29.7.0 network but all other traffic is permitted?
Payroll(config)# interface fa0/1
Payroll(config-if)# ip access-group 26 out
34.
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming default metrics are used and the network is fully converged, which path will RIP use to send a packet from Router A to Router F?
A, B, D, E, F
Refer to the graphic. Communication is needed between the LAN connected to the fa0/0 interface of the Kansas router and the fa0/0 interface of the Maine router. All hosts on those LANs also need connectivity to the Internet. Which commands will allow this communication? (Choose three).
Kansas(config)# ip route 192.168.6.0 255.255.255.0 172.18.64.2
Kansas(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1
Maine(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1
36. Why are interface descriptions used in router configurations? (Choose three).
to enable support personnel to easily identify networks and customers that may be affected by a possible interface issue
to provide comments on the interface without affecting the router functionality
to identify the purpose and location of the interface
38. What could a Cisco support technician learn from the IOS filename c2600-d-mz.121-3? (Choose three.)
the format of the file
the version number of the file
the device platform of the file
43. What are two characteristics of the support for Telnet within Cisco IOS software? (Choose two.)
Up to five separate Telnet lines are supported by default in standard edition IOS files.
A router can host simultaneous Telnet sessions.
47.
Neither router in the exhibit has a host table or DNS available. The interfaces and passwords have been correctly configured. Which of the following commands will initiate a Telnet session? (Choose two.)
Tottenham> telnet 198.18.139.1
Oxford# 198.18.139.2
48. If a PC does not have network connectivity to a router, which router port can be used to establish communication?
console
30. What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet?
• used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests
1.Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?
Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.
2
Refer to the exhibit. The command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0 is run on router R2. What are the two results of this command?
(Choose two.)
A static route will be updated in the routing table.
The route will be specified as the default route for all networks not defined in the routing table.
4
Which two statements are true about the EIGRP successor route? (Choose two.)
It may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
It is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to the destination.
5
Which statement correctly describes a feasible successor in EIGRP?
It is a backup route that is stored in the topology table.
6
A network administrator is in charge of two separate networks that share a single building. What device will be required to connect the
two networks and add a common connection to the Internet that can be shared?
router
16. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will
travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send packets out multiple
exit interfaces.
45.Refer to the exhibit. What does the highlighted entry for network 172.30.0.0/16 indicate?
Automatic summarization is enabled on R1.
46.Refer to the exhibit. What are two of the routes added to the routing table of R1? (Choose two
R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.2.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/1
R 192.168.100.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.1.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0
47.A router has learned two equal cost paths to a remote network via the EIGRP and RIP protocols. Both protocols are using their default
configurations. Which path to the remote network will be installed in the routing table?
the path learned via EIGRP
48.What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet?
used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests
1. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on
Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1
and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?
• The packet will be dropped
2. Which three statements are true of holddown timers? (Choose three.)
• prevent update messages from reinstating a route that may have gone bad
• allow routers to still forward packets to destination networks that are in holddown
• permit lower metric updates received from any neighboring router to reinstate the route
to a possibly down Network
3. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running
OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?
• *R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0
4. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface
on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from
the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router?
• The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
5. Refer to the exhibit. Which path will traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network take to get
to the 10.0.0.0/24 network?
• It will load balance the traffic between ADC and ABC
6. Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network
administrator discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 172.16.0.0 network.
Assuming Router2 is configured correctly, which two static routes could be configured
on Router1 to enable Host A to reach network 172.16.0.0? (Choose two.)
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2
7. What can be determined from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
• Annapolis is a 2611 router that is connected to the S0/0 interface of the Montgomery
router.
• Montgomery has Layer 2 connectivity with Cumberland.
• Brant, Fisherman, and Potomac are directly connected to Montgomery.
8. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network
attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B
to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?
• The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network
10.2.0.0/16.
9. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• They are aware of the complete network topology.
• They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.
10. A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not
being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which
command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default
route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area?
11. Refer to the exhibit. What are the effects of the exhibited commands on the router?
All passwords are encrypted.
• Only Telnet sessions are encrypted.
12. When presented with multiple valid routes to a destination, what criteria does a router
use to determine which routes to add to the routing table?
• The router first selects routes with the lowest administrative distance. The resulting
routes are then prioritized by metric and the routes with the best metric are added to the
routing table.
13. Which statement is true regarding routing metrics?
• Routers compare metrics to determine the best route.
14. A router has learned about a network through static and dynamic routing processes.
Which route will be used to reach network 192.168.168.0?
• S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1
15. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of
packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
• The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
• The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
• The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit
interface.
16. When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from Router C, which devices will
be displayed in the output?
• B, D
17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to determine why router JAX
has no OSPF routes in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. From
the JAX router, the administrator is able to ping its connected interfaces and the Fa0/1
interface of the ORL router but no other router interfaces. What is a logical step that the
network administrator should take to troubleshoot the problem?
• Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating.
18. Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS
loads from flash?
• Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.
19. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to
reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address
space or overlapping the networks on Router1?
• 172.16.0.0/13
20. The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected
that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing
used in the topology?
• The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps
with the subnetwork
assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.
21. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the
host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. • The PC is not
communicating with the network properly. What is the cause?
• The host address and default gateway are swapped.
• Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0.
23. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1?
(Choose three.)
• The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default
value.
• Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
• No default route has been configured.
24. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached
to router R1?
• 198.18.48.0/21
25. What is the purpose of the TTL field within an IP packet header?
• limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network
before it should be
discarded
26. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are
needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)
• Paris(config)# router eigrp 100
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0
27. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network?
• It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the
periodic updates.
28. Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true based on the output shown?
(Choose two.)
• neighbors 192.168.10.9 and 192.168.10.5 have auto summary disabled
• router 3 is load balancing traffic to the 172.16.3.0 network across its serial interfaces
29. Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol. If network
10.0.0.0 goes down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing
information back to Router2?
• split horizon
30. What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet?
• used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests
31. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing
protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16
network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
• The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost
load balancing to send
packets out multiple exit interfaces.
32. Refer to the exhibit. A packet enters Router1 with a destination IP of 172.16.28.121.
Which routing table entry will be used to forward this packet to the destination address?
• 172.16.16.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.17
33. Refer to the exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link. Pings
are failing between the two routers. What change by the administrator will correct the
problem?
• Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 192.168.0.1/30.
34. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose
two.)
• NVRAM - stores the configuration file
• POST - runs diagnostics on hardware modules
35. The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0
255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command.
How will this route appear in the routing table?
• S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
36. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are both level 1 and qualify for use as an
ultimate route?
• 2
37. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are
operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will
be included in the show ip route command output for router A?
• The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been
configured.
38. Which three statements about routing protocols are true? (Choose three.)
• OSPF elects designated routers on multiaccess links.
• EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing.
• RIP does not advertise a route beyond a hop count of 15.
39. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1?
• DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0.
40. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?
• *Packets routed to the R2 ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.
41. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram.
Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router
A?
• B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
A(config)# no router rip
42. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled “?” in the graphic?
(Choose three.)
• DCE
• CSU/DSU
• modem
43. Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing
process configuration? Choose three.)
• network address
• wildcard mask
• area ID
44. The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has
a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly
addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to
destination address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a
reason for this result?
• The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24
network in its routing updates.
45. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the
output of various router
commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
• The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route.
• The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120.
• The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C.
46. Refer to exhibit. A company network engineer enters the following commands in the
routers:
• Configure the static route to use an exit interface instead of a next-hop address.
47. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by
issuing the tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host A,
what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.)
• Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
• Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
48. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form
a neighbor adjacency?Choose two.)
• The routers must agree on the network type.
• The routers must use the same dead interval.
49. Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the
highlighted value 192?
• It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
• It is the metric, which is cost.
50. Refer to the exhibit. The results of the show ip route command are displayed in the
graphic for Router R2. Which route will be selected for a packet with a destination
address of 10.1.4.1?
• 0.0.0.0/0 via 192.168.0.1
51. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to
perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
• 172.16.40.0/24
• 192.168.2.0/24
52. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
• packet switching
• path selection
53. What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.)
• tests Layer 2 connectivity
• enabled by default on each interface
• provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled
54Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are running RIPv2 and EIGRP with
default routing protocol settings and have interfaces configured with the bandwidths that
are shown in the exhibit. Which protocol will be used and how will traffic between the
Router1 LAN and Router5 LAN be routed through the network?
• RIPv2 traffic will use the path Router1, Router2, Router5 because it has the least hops.
55. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose
three.)
• As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table.
• If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the
topology.
• The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor..
56. Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with
the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)
• OSPF interval timers mismatch
• interface network type mismatch
• inconsistent authentication configuration
57. What is the first step OSPF and IS-IS routers take in building a shortest path first
database?
• send hello to discover neighbors and form adjacencies
1. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator documented the output of a CAM table from an Ethernet switch as shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?
discard the frame
forward the frame out port 2
forward the frame out port 3
forward the frame out all ports
*forward the frame out all ports except port 3
add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to port 2 in the forwarding table
2. Refer to the exhibit. What does the term DYNAMIC indicate in the output that is shown?
This entry can only be removed from the MAC address table by a network administrator.
When forwarding a frame to the device with address 0060.5c5b.cd23,the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine
Only the device with MAC address 0060.5c5b.cd23 will be allowed to connect to port Fa0/18
*The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/18
3. A new switch is to be added to an existing network in a remote office. The network administrator does not want the technicians in the
remote office to be able to add new VLANs to the switch,but the switch should receive VLAN updates from the VTP domain. Which
two steps must be performed to configure VTP on the new switch to meet these conditions?(Choose two.)
Configure an IP address on the new switch
*Configure the existing VTP domain on the new switch
Configure all ports of both switches to access mode
*Configure the new switch as a VTP client
Enable VTP pruning
4. Refer to the exhibit. What is true of the configuration of switch S1?
A Cisco proprietary protocol is in use for ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3
Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 have been configured with the switchport mode access command
Untagged frames received on ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 will be placed on VLAN 1
*Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 are configured to carry data from multiple VLANs
5. Refer to the exhibit. On which of the devices in this network should routing between VLAns take place?
the core layer devices
the access layer devices
the distribution layer devices
*the core and distribution layer devices
6. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator enters the displayed commands to configure VLAN 30. What is the result of running
these commands?
VLAN 30 will be added to S1,S2,and S3,but not to S4
VLAN 30 will be pruned from the VLAN database of S3
*VLAN 30 will be added to the VLAN database of S3 but will not be propagated to S4,S2 or S1
VLAN 30 will not be added to the VLAN database of S3 and an error message will be displayed
7. After listening for the presence of a signal on the network media, host A and C transmit data at the same time. In what two ways do
the hosts respond to this situation?(Choose two)
*The hosts transmit a jam signal to ensure that all hosts on the network are aware that a collision has occured
Because they are operating in full-duplex mode, the hosts resume listening for traffic in preparation for sending future messages
Because the hub will temporarily block traffic from one of the hosts, that host will be allowed to transmit once the wire is clear
Hosts A and C are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media for retransmission
*After the backoff eriod of a host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before retransmitting
8. Refer to the exhibit.Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.65 and destination address of 192.168.1.161.
What will the router do with this packet?
*The router will drop the packet
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3
9. Which statement regarding the service password-encryption command is true?
The service password-encryption command is entered at the privileged EXEC mode prompt
The service password-encryption command encrypts only passwords for the console and VTY ports
*The service password-encryption command encrypts all previously unencrypted passwords in the running configuration
To see the passwords encrypted by the service password-encryption command, enter the no service password-encryption command
10. Refer to the exhibit. Switches S2 and S3 are properly connected using an ethernet cable. A network administrator has configured both
switches with VTP, but S3 is unable to propagate VLANs to S2. What could be the reason for this?
The VTP configuration revision is different on both switches
*The VTP domains are different on both switches
VTP pruning is disabled
VTP v2 is disabled
11. Refer to the exhibit.Both switches are configured with default bridge priority. Which port will act as STP root port if all links are
operating at the same bandwidth?
Fa0/1 interface of S1
Fa0/2 interface of S1
Fa0/1 interface of S2
*Fa0/2 interface of S2
12. Refer to the exhibit. The switch VTY lines have been properly configured, but PC1 is unable to remotely manage the switch. How can
this problem be resolved?
Configure the Fa0/1 interface of the switch in trunk mode
*Configure a default gateway on the switch
Configure the native VLAN on the switch
Configure the Fa0/1 interface of the switch to allow all VLANs
13. What provides an authentication mechanism for 802.11-based wireless networks?
DSSS
OFDM
*SSID
WPA
14.Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate?(Choose three)
*The switch ports are o different VLANs
The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet
*The hosts are configured on different logical networks
*A router is required to forward traffic between Host1 and Host2
The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN
The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network
15. Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN3. Which IP address should be assigned to this new host?
192.168.1.22/28
192.168.1.31/28
192.168.1.32/28
*192.168.1.52/28
192.168.1.63/28
16. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting station collide. What is
the last device to receive the collision?
hub HB1
*switch SW1
router R1
switch SW2
router R2
switch SW4
17. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to remove the east-hosts VLAN and use the switch port from that VLAN in one of
the existing VLANs. Which two sets of commands should be used when completely removing VLAN 2 from S1-Central ehile leaving
the switch and all its interfaces operational?(Choose two)
S1-Central>enable
S1-Central#reload
S1-Central>enable
S1-Central#erase flash:
S1-Central>enable
S1-Central#delete flash:vlan.dat
*S1-Central>enable
S1-Central#configure terminal
S1-Central(config)#no vlan 2
*S1-Central>enable
S1-Central#configure terminal
S1-Central(config-if)#interface fastethernet 0/1
S1-Central(config-if)#switchport access vlan 3
18. Refer to the exhibit. In what two ways will the router handle VLAN traffic that is received on the trunk?(Choose two)
Traffic to VLAN 1 received by the router interface Fa0/0 will be dropped by the router
*Because interface Fa0/0 requires an iP address, the router will not be able to route between the VLANs
*Packets that are received from network 192.168.20.0/24 will be handled by subinterface Fa0/0.20
The router will use subinterface MAC addersses to identify the VLAN traffic that is received on the physical interface
The router will continue to process traffic from the attached VLANs even if the physical interface goes down
19. Refer to the exhibit. Which two options correctly describe the router configuration that is shown?(Choose two)
Routing between the 192.168.1.0 and 192.168.3.0 networks will not succeed until a routing protocol is configured on the router
*VLANs have not been appropriately configured on the router subinterfaces
The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design
Trunking has been appropriately configured on the router subinterfaces
*An IP address should be applied to interface Fa0/1 for routing to occur
20. Refer to the exhibit. The devices in the network are operational and configured as indicated in the exhibit. However, hosts A and D
cannot ping each other. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
The link between the switches is up but not trunked
*The Fa0/11 interface of Switch1 is not configured as a trunk
Hosts A and D are configured with IP addresses from different subnets
VLAN 20 and VLAN 30 are not allowed on the trunk between the switches
21. Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate?(Choose three)
*The switch ports are is on different VLANs
The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet
*The hosts are configured on different logical networks
A router is required to forward traffic between Host1 and Host2
The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN
*The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network
22. Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch?(Choose three)
*It is configured in VTP server mode
*STP is automatically enabled
The first VTY line is automatically configured to allow remote connections
VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address
*All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1
The enable password is configured as cisco
23. When configuring a router to act as an SSH server, what should be configured before issuing the crypto key generate rsa command?
the security domain name
the VTP domain name
*the IP domain name
the host name
24.Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts about STP can be determined from the displayed output?(Choose two)
*Switch S1 has the lowest configured STP priority in the network
Switch S1 is configured as the root bridge for VLAN1
*Fa0/21 is the root port of switch S1
Fa0/22 is the redundant link
Fa0/24 is considered the best path to the root bridge
25. Refer to the exhibit. VTP pruning is enabled in the VTP domain that is shown. How will switch ST-1 handle Layer 2 broadcast traffic
originating from host A on switch ST-C?
It will be dropped
It will be forwarded out port Fa0/5 only
*It will be forwarded out ports Fa0/5 and Fa0/10
It will be forwarded out ports Fa0/5, Fa0/10, and Fa0/15
26. Refer to the exhibit. How will switch S2 manage traffic coming from host PC1?
S2 will drop the traffic, unless it is management traffic
S2 will tag the frame with VLAN ID 99 when it forwards it over the trunk link
*S2 will leave the traffic untagged when it forwards it over a trunk link
S2 will tag the traffic with the highest VLAN ID value when it forwards it over the trunk link
27. Which two statements are corect about wireless infrastructure components?(Choose two)
An AP converts the TCP/IP data packets from their 802.11 frame encapsulation format to the 802.3 Ethernet frame format on the
wired Ethernet network
*A wireless AP does not require any physical connection to allow wireless clients to access the Internet
An AP is a layer 2 device, similar to a switch, that provides dediated bandwidth to each connected wireless host
Collisions do not occur between wireless NICs and APs
*The wireless router performs the roles of AP and router
28. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW-A is to be used as temporary replacement for another switch in the VTP Student domain. What two
pieces of information are indicated from the exhibited output?(Choose two)
*The other switches in the domain can be running either VTP versin 1 or 2
There is a risk that the switch may cause incorrect VLAN information to be sent through the domain
VTP will block frame forwarding on at least one redundant trunk port that is configured on this switch
VLAN configuration changes made on this switch will be sent to other devices in the VTP domain
*This switch will update its VLAN configuration when VLAN changes are made on a VTP server in the same domain
29. Refer to the exhibit. The switches have been configured as shown. The hosts that are connected to switch 101-2FL are not able to
communicate with the hosts in their corresponding VLANs that are connected to switch 101-3FL. What should be done to fix the problem?
*Configure port Fa0/2 on switch 101-3FL as a static trunk link
Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability into the topology
Utilize the switchport trunk allowed vlan all command on switch 101-3FL to permit the VLAN traffic
Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces that are used to connect switches 101-2FL and 101-3FL
30. What are three benefits of employing a hierarchical network design?(choose three)
*Hierarchically designed networks can more easily be expanded to suit future needs
*Hierarchical design models enhance existing bandwidth through the use of link aggregation
*The hierarchical model allows for specialized functionality at each layer, simplifying device management
Use of a hierarchical design allows replacement of redundant devices with high-capacity network equipment
A hierarchical design uses firewalls instead of complicated port-based and distribution layer security policies
The hierarchical model allows the use of high-performance switches at all design layers, thus allowing for fully-meshed topology
31. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator configures both switches as displayed. Howerer, host C is unable to ping host D and
host E is unable to ping host F. What ation should the administrator take to enable this communication?
Include a router in the topology
Associate hosts A and B with VLAN 10 instead of VLAN 1
Remote the native VLAN from the trunk
*Configure one trunk port in the dynamic desirable mode
Add the switchport nonegotiate command to the configuration of S2
32. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLAns. The connected hosts can only access
resources in their own VLAN. What th most scalable and cost effective solution to allow inter-VLAN communication in this network?
Replace S1 with a router that has one FastEthernet interface for each PC
Add a second switch and divide the PCs so that each VLAN is connected to is own switch
*Configure a router with two subinterfaces on one of its FastEthernet ports and connect it to S1 using a trunk link
Connect a router to a port on S1 and assign the IP address of VLAN1 to the connecting router interface
33. Refer to the exhibit. How is port Gi1/1 on SwT-A functioning in the spanning-tree topology?
*It is sending and receiving data frames
It is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames
It is participating in the election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives
It is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data
34. What are two requirements for configuring inter-VLAN routing using the router-on-a-stick model?(Choose two)
*Each subinterface should be configured with its own Ip address, subnet mask, and unique VLAN assignment
*The physical interface of the router must be connected to a trunk link on the adjacent switch
The number of physical interfaces on the router should match the number of VLANs
Different static VLANs should be assigned to different interfaces of the router
The router should be configured as the VTP server
35. Refer to the exhibit. Sw-T has been configured with a single trunking interface. Which VLANs will be allowed across the trunk?
Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk
*All configured VLANs will be allowed across the trunk
Only the native VLAN wil be allowed across the trunk
Only the the management and native VLANs will be allowed across the trunk
Only VLANs that are configured on the VTP server in the domain will be allowed across the trunk
36. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly urchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2
so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?
Disable VTP pruning on SW2
Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode
*Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password
Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number
37. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is properly configured for router on a stick inter-VLAN routing, but PC1 is unable to ping PC2. What
needs to be one to resolve the problem?
Rename VLAN1
Connect one more port of S1 to R1
*Configure the Fa0/1 port of S1 as trunk port
Move the Fa0/0 interface of R1 to another VLAN
38. Refer to the exhibit. All trunk links are operational and all VLANs are allowed on all trunk links. An ARP request it sent by computer 5.
Which device or devices will receive this message?
only computer 4
*computer 3 and RTR-A
computer 4 and RTR-A
computer 1, computer 2, computer 4, and RTR-A
computer 1, computer 2, computer 3, computer 4, and RTR-A
all of the computers and the router
39. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B attempt to transmit a frame at the same time and a collision occurs. When will host D be able to transmit?
*immediately
after sending its jam signal
after host A and host B have comleted transmission
after the jam signal clears and its backoff delay expires
40. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to configure Switch1 to allow SSH connections and prohibit Telnet connections.
How should the network administrator change the displayed confoguration to satisfy the requirement?
Use SSH version 1
Reconfigure the RSA key
Configure SSH on a different line
*Modify the transport input command
41. Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of setting the security mode to WEP on the Linksys integrated router?
WEP identifies the wireless LAN
WEP allows the access point to inform clients to its presence
WEP translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names
*WEP encrypt data between the wireless client and the access point
WEP ensures that only authenticated users are allowed acces to the WLAN
WEP translates an internal address or group of addresses into an outside, public address
42. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are configured for VTP as shown. Which two statements correctly describe the operation of these switches?(Choose two)
A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2
*A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4
*An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2
An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4
A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, Switch3
A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, Switch4
43. After unpacking a new Linksys WRT300N wireless multifunction device, a user needs to change the default administrator password
and make other configuration changes. What must the user doto access the device in order to make these changes?
Use a wireless client to associate with the WRT300N and then open a HyperTerminal sssion with the device
Establish a wired connection with the device and then reboot the attached computer to launch the configuration software
*Establish a wired connection from a computer in the same IP subnet as the WRT300N and enter the default IP address of the
device into a web browser on the computer
Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer that is connected to the WRT300N so that the computer and the WRT300N exist on
the same network. Then reboot computer to establish a connection
44. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
Cat-A
Cat-B
Cat-C
*Cat-D
45. Which statements correctly describes the function of a Layer 2 switch?
*It performs switching and filtering based on the destination network layer address
It automatically uses STP to prevent switching loops in redundant topologies
It uses VTP to allow data from multiple VLANs to travel across a single link
It routes packets between different LAN segments
46. Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol?(Choose two)
*It only used at Layer 2
It is configured on routers
*It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies
It limits the number of valid MAC addresses allowed on a port
It allows VLAN information to propagate to other switches in the network
47. Which statement correctly describes the spanning-tree path cost?
It is calculated based on the total number of switches connected in a loop
It is calculated based on the utilization of all the switches along a given path
*It is calculated based on the bridge priority of the switches along a given path
It is calculated based on the sum of the port cost value, determited by link speed, for each switch port along a given path
48. What is the purpose of VLAN trunking?
It improves network performance by reducing broadcast traffic
It select the best path to transmit data in a switched network
*It carries the traffic of multiple VLANs through a single link
It avoids spanning tree loops in a switched network
49. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the configuration commands that are shown?
to activate port Fa0/10
*to make the port a member of VLAN 30
to activate port security on port Fa0/10
to add VLAN 30 to the trunk that is connected to port Fa0/10
50. Refer to the exhibit. Router R-West and switch S-West1 are connected via a single ethernet cable between the router interface fa0/0 and the switch interface fa0/1. The router and switch have been configured with the commands that are displayed in the exhibit. The network administrator enters the show interfaces trunk command and receives the output as shown. What is the cause of the "not-trunking" status for switch port Fa0/1?
The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to
use it
The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements
necessary to form a trunk
*Because the router does not support Dynamic Trunking Protocol,
the trunk has not been established
The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the
dynamic desirable option for Dynamic Trunking Protocol to
establish a trunk
A network administrator is setting up a new router with a device name of Admin, an e
crypted password of cangetin, and the IP address 192.168.1.22/29 assigned to the first FastEthernet interface. Which command sequence correctly configures this router?
refer to eschibit.a tehnician uses the show ip route comand to troubleshoot a network and receives the ouput that is shown.what is indicated by the route that is labeled R*
Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
Refer to the exhibit. What action does SW1 take on a frame sent from PC_A to PC_C if the MAC address table of SW1 is empty?
Refer to the exhibit. The switch and the hub have default configurations, and the switch has built its CAM table. Which of the hosts will capture a copy of the frame when workstation A sends a unicast packet to workstation C?
Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains are depicted in the network?
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has decided to allow only Secure Shell connections to Switch1. After the commands are applied, the administrator is able to connect to Switch1 using both Secure Shell and Telnet. What is most likely the problem?
Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows partial output of the show running-config command. The enable password on this switch is “cisco.” What can be determined from the output shown?
Refer to the exhibit. What happens when Host 1 attempts to send data?
Refer to the exhibit. Which hosts will receive a broadcast frame sent from Host A?